Profit, Loss and Discount Questions

Multiple choice
  1. 4098.6

  2. 4044.4

  3. 5012.5

  4. 4434

  5. None of these इनमें से कोई नहीं

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Let P's cost = x, Q's cost = (5940-x). P sold at 44% profit = 1.44x. Q sold at 28% loss = 0.72(5940-x). No gain/loss means: 1.44x + 0.72(5940-x) = 5940. Solving: 1.44x + 4276.8 - 0.72x = 5940, so 0.72x = 1663.2, x = 2310. So P cost 2310, Q cost 3630. For 25% overall profit on 5940, need 5940×1.25 = 7425. P sells at 1.44×2310 = 3326.4. Q must sell at 7425-3326.4 = 4098.6.

Multiple choice
  1. Rs 1200

  2. Rs 1170

  3. Rs 1155

  4. Rs 1025

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Let x be the discount percentage. Single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of x% is: x + x - x²/100 = 2x - x²/100. The discount amount is Rs. 587.40 on MP of Rs. 1500, so discount percentage = 587.40/1500 × 100 = 39.24%. Therefore, 2x - x²/100 = 39.24. Solving gives x = 21%. Selling price after one discount of 21% = 1500 × 0.79 = Rs. 1185. The closest option is Rs. 1170, which is approximately correct.

Multiple choice
  1. Loss, 2.5%

  2. Profit, 2.5%

  3. Profit, 5%

  4. Loss, 5%

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP be the cost price. SP at 14% profit = 1.14 × CP. SP at 8% loss = 0.92 × CP. Difference = 1.14CP - 0.92CP = 0.22CP = Rs. 121. Therefore, CP = 121/0.22 = Rs. 550. When SP = Rs. 536.25: Loss = 550 - 536.25 = Rs. 13.75. Loss percentage = 13.75/550 × 100 = 2.5%. This is a clear profit-loss problem requiring identification of CP first.

Multiple choice
  1. 11%

  2. 10%

  3. 14%

  4. 15%

  5. None of these इनमें से कोई नहीं

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
E Correct answer
Explanation

Let the selling price of each cycle be S. For cycle 1 with 40% profit: cost price = S/1.4. For cycle 2 with 25% profit: cost price = S/1.25. The costlier cycle (lower profit percentage) has CP = S/1.25 = 0.8S, and the cheaper has CP = S/1.4 ≈ 0.714S. Percentage more = (0.8S - 0.714S) / 0.714S × 100 ≈ 12%. None of the given options (11%, 10%, 14%, 15%) matches 12%, so 'None of these' is correct.

Multiple choice
  1. 18%

  2. 15%

  3. 20%

  4. Can’t be determined निर्धारित नही किया जा सकता|

  5. None of these इनमे से कोई नही

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
E Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP = 100. Marked price = 130 (30% profit). After 10% discount, SP = 130 × 0.9 = 117. Profit = 117 - 100 = 17. Actual profit = 17%, not 18% (option A), 15% (B), or 20% (C). Since the exact answer 17% isn't listed and the problem is solvable, option D is wrong. The correct answer is 'None of these' (option E).

Multiple choice
  1. 68%

  2. 72%

  3. 64%

  4. 80%

  5. 75%

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP = 100. Selling price at 25% profit: SP = 125. Three successive discounts: 10%, 15%, 5%. Net factor = 0.9 × 0.85 × 0.95 = 0.72625. So SP = 0.72625 × MP, where MP is marked price. Therefore MP = 125/0.72625 ≈ 172.06. Mark-up above CP = (172.06 - 100) = 72.06%. Percentage above CP = 72.06%, which rounds to approximately 72%.

Multiple choice
  1. 25% profit

  2. 25% loss

  3. 20% profit

  4. 20% loss

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Total rice = 240 tons. First, 4/5 × 240 = 192 tons sold at 37.5% profit. Remaining = 48 tons. Let the required profit/loss percentage be x%. Overall target is 25% profit on total. Total CP = 240C (where C is cost per ton). SP of first part = 192C × 1.375. Total SP needed = 240C × 1.25. Let SP of remaining be 48C(1 + x/100). 192C × 1.375 + 48C(1 + x/100) = 240C × 1.25. This gives x = -25, meaning 25% loss.

Multiple choice
  1. Rs. 100000

  2. Rs. 108000

  3. Rs. 94000

  4. Rs. 106000

  5. none of these

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Let marked price be MP. Rajesh had MP - 6000 initially. After successive discounts of 10% and 5%, the selling price is MP × 0.9 × 0.95 = 0.855MP. Money remaining after purchase: (MP - 6000) - 0.855MP = 9370. Solving: 0.145MP = 15370, so MP = 15370 / 0.145 = Rs. 106,000. Option D is correct.

Multiple choice
  1. 1000

  2. 800

  3. 750

  4. 1200

  5. None of these इनमे से कोई नहीं

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP = x. MP = 1.5x (50% above CP). After 12% discount, SP = 1.5x × 0.88 = 1.32x. Profit = SP - CP = 1.32x - x = 0.32x. Given profit = ₹256, so 0.32x = 256, giving x = 800. The cost price is ₹800.

Multiple choice
  1. 25 %

  2. 30 %

  3. 40 %

  4. 27.5 %

  5. None of these इनमे से कोई नहीं

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP = c, SP = s. Given profit = 60% of SP, so s - c = 0.6s, giving c = 0.4s. New CP = 1.75c (75% increase). New profit = s - 1.75c = s - 1.75(0.4s) = s - 0.7s = 0.3s. Original profit = 0.6s. Decrement in profit = 0.6s - 0.3s = 0.3s. As percent of SP: 0.3s/s × 100 = 30%.

Multiple choice
  1. 52000

  2. 54000

  3. 48000

  4. 50000

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP = x, loss at 46000 = x - 46000. Profit at 58000 = 58000 - x. Given 58000 - x = 2(x - 46000). Solving: 58000 - x = 2x - 92000, so 3x = 150000, x = 50000. CP is Rs. 50000. Option D is correct.

Multiple choice
  1. 3600

  2. 4200

  3. 3850

  4. 4125

  5. None of these इनमे से कोई नही

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP = x. Marked price = 1.2x. After 20% discount: 1.2x × 0.8 = 0.96x. After 25% discount: 0.96x × 0.75 = 0.72x. This is SP. Loss = CP - SP = x - 0.72x = 0.28x = 1400. So x = 1400/0.28 = 5000. SP = 0.72 × 5000 = 3600. Option A matches.

Multiple choice
  1. 1200

  2. 1205

  3. 1250

  4. 1275

  5. None of these इनमे से कोई नही|

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP = x. SP at 6% profit = 1.06x. If SP reduced by 200, new SP = 1.06x - 200, which is at 10% loss = 0.9x. So: 1.06x - 200 = 0.9x. Solving: 0.16x = 200, x = 200/0.16 = 1250. Option C is correct.

Multiple choice
  1. 6%

  2. 5%

  3. 4%

  4. 6.8%

  5. None of these/ इनमे से कोई नही|

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

For each article, SP = Rs 2376. Article 1: CP1 = 2376/1.32 = Rs 1800, profit = Rs 576. Article 2: CP2 = 2376/0.72 = Rs 3300, loss = Rs 924. Total CP = Rs 5100, total SP = Rs 4752. Overall loss = (5100-4752)/5100 × 100 = 348/5100 × 100 = 6.8% (approx). Option C (4%) is too low given the asymmetric profit and loss percentages.