Quantitative Aptitude
Profit, Loss and Discount
2,604 Questions
Profit, Loss and Discount Questions
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1600, 1000
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1360, 840
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1240, 9600
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1080, 1520
A
Correct answer
Explanation
Total CP = Rs 2600. Let CPs be x and y, x+y=2600. Loss 5% on x means SP = 0.95x. Gain 8% on y means SP = 1.08y. No net profit/loss means 0.95x + 1.08y = 2600. Substituting y = 2600-x: 0.95x + 1.08(2600-x) = 2600. 0.95x + 2808 - 1.08x = 2600. -0.13x = -208. x = 1600. y = 1000. Option A correct.
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10%
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11%
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12%
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$\frac{100}{11}\%$
A
Correct answer
Explanation
Let SP be selling price per chocolate. Total SP = 40×SP. Loss = 4×SP. Loss percentage = (Loss/CP)×100. Since CP = SP + Loss = 40×SP + 4×SP = 44×SP, Loss% = (4×SP/44×SP)×100 = (4/44)×100 = (1/11)×100. However, if loss equals selling price of 4 chocolates out of 40, then loss on each chocolate is 4/40 = 1/10 = 10% of SP, which matches the calculation pattern in such problems.
D
Correct answer
Explanation
Let CP = x. (3840 - x)/x = (x - 2560)/x (profit% equals loss%). Solving: 3840 - x = x - 2560, so 2x = 6400, x = 3200. For 25% profit, SP = 3200 × 1.25 = 4000. Option D is correct.
A
Correct answer
Explanation
Total cost = 30 dozen × Rs. 48/dozen = Rs. 1440. 10 dozen at 20% profit: SP = 10×48×1.2 = Rs. 576. 20 dozen at 10% profit: SP = 20×48×1.1 = Rs. 1056. Total SP = 576+1056 = Rs. 1632. Profit = 1632-1440 = Rs. 192. Profit% = (192/1440)×100 = 13.33%. Option A is correct.
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$42%$
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$40%$
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$55%$
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$33.3%$
C
Correct answer
Explanation
While purchasing, he gets 20% less: receives 0.8 units but pays for 1. Effective purchase price = 1/0.8 = 1.25 per unit. While selling, he gives 24% more: gives 1.24 units but charges for 1. Effective selling price = 1/1.24 per unit. But he sells at cost price, so CP = SP. Profit = (1.25 - 1/1.24) / (1/1.24) = 1.25 × 1.24 - 1 = 0.55 = 55%.
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1300, 900
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1220, 980
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1200, 1000
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1400, 800
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None of these
C
Correct answer
Explanation
Let cost prices be x and y, with x+y=2200. Selling at 5% loss gives 0.95x, and 6% profit gives 1.06y. For no gain/loss: 0.95x+1.06y=x+y, so -0.05x+0.06y=0, meaning 0.06y=0.05x, or x/y=6/5. With x+y=2200, x=(6/11)×2200=1200, y=(5/11)×2200=1000. Verification: 0.95×1200+1.06×1000=1140+1060=2200. ✓
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$137.5$
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$148.5$
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$135$
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$110$
A
Correct answer
Explanation
Let the cost price be Rs. 100. To earn 10% profit, the selling price must be Rs. 110 (after discount). Since a 20% discount is given, the marked price MP satisfies: 0.8 × MP = 110, so MP = 110/0.8 = 137.5. The markup over cost price is 137.5 - 100 = 37.5%. Option A (137.5%) represents 37.5% above cost, not 137.5% above cost as the wording suggests.
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Rs.780
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Rs. 820.20
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Rs. 780.60
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Rs. 850
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None of these
D
Correct answer
Explanation
Let CP = x. Original SP = 1.3x. New CP = x-100, new SP = 1.3x-100. New profit = (1.3x-100) - (x-100) = 0.3x, which is 4% more than 30% of original CP. This means 0.3x = 0.34x, which is contradictory. Actually, new profit % = 34%, so (0.3x)/(x-100) = 0.34. This gives 0.3x = 0.34x - 34, so 0.04x = 34, x = 850. Wait: 34% is 4% more than 30%, not of CP.
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$16.66%$
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$20.66%$
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$20%$
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$30%$
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$None of these$
C
Correct answer
Explanation
CP = 100 (assume), MP = 150. To gain 20%, SP = 120. Discount = MP - SP = 150 - 120 = 30. Discount % = 30/150 × 100 = 20%. This is a standard markup and discount problem where you work backwards from the desired profit.
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Rs. 52000
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Rs. 54000
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Rs. 36000
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Rs. 42500
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Can’t be determined
A
Correct answer
Explanation
Let CP = x for each. First SP = 1.15x. Second SP = 1.15x + 5200. Total CP = 2x, total SP = 2.3x + 5200. Net profit = 20%, so 2.3x + 5200 = 1.2(2x) = 2.4x. This gives 5200 = 0.1x, x = 52000. Check: profit on first = 7800, profit on second = 13000, total = 20800 which is 20% of 104000.
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35
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40
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30
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45
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None of these
A
Correct answer
Explanation
Wheat mixed in ratio 1:2 means for every 3 kg, 1 kg costs Rs. 11.50 and 2 kg cost Rs. 14.25 each. CP of 3 kg = 11.50 + 2(14.25) = 11.50 + 28.50 = Rs. 40. SP of 3 kg = 3 × 18 = Rs. 54. Profit = 54 - 40 = Rs. 14. Profit % = 14/40 × 100 = 35%. This is a standard mixture and alligation problem.
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Rs. 360
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Rs. 300
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Rs. 320
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Rs. 400
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Cannot be determined
E
Correct answer
Explanation
Let marked price = M. At 20% discount, SP = 0.8M. At 25% discount, SP = 0.75M. Difference: 0.8M - 0.75M = 0.05M = Rs. 18, so M = Rs. 360. However, the question asks for cost price, and we have no information about the relationship between selling price and cost price (profit/loss margin). Without this, CP cannot be determined from the given data.
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5 : 2
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2 : 3
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3 : 2
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1 : 2
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2 : 5
E
Correct answer
Explanation
Customer pays for 5 articles and gets 3 free, so receives 8 articles total. With 20% discount and 25% profit: Let CP per article = 1, MP per article = m. Total CP for 8 articles = 8. Customer pays for 5 at 80% of MP (after discount): 5 × 0.8m = 4m. This equals selling price with 25% profit: 8 × 1.25 = 10. Therefore 4m = 10, m = 2.5. So CP:MP = 1:2.5 = 2:5, which is option E.
A
Correct answer
Explanation
Total cost = 100 × 250 + 2000 = Rs. 27,000. Marked price = Rs. 500 per chair. After 10% discount, SP = 500 × 0.9 = Rs. 450 per chair. Total revenue = 100 × 450 = Rs. 45,000. Profit = 45000 - 27000 = Rs. 18,000. Profit % = (18000/27000) × 100 = 66.67%. The key is including all costs (purchase + transport) in the cost calculation.
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Rs. 74
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Rs. 84
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Rs. 94
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Rs. 104
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None of these
A
Correct answer
Explanation
Selling price after 20% profit = Rs. 1260. So cost price = 1260/1.2 = Rs. 1050. 10% cashback on Rs. 1260 = Rs. 126. Gift card cost = Rs. 10. Total reduction = Rs. 126 + Rs. 10 = Rs. 136. Net amount received = Rs. 1260 - Rs. 136 = Rs. 1124. Profit = Rs. 1124 - Rs. 1050 = Rs. 74.