Quantitative Aptitude

Profit, Loss and Discount

2,604 Questions
All Basic CP/SP Percentage Relationship 874 Marked Price, Markup, and Discount 786 Partial Sales and Multiple Transactions 338 Successive Discounts 218 Cost Price of X = Selling Price of Y 180 Faulty Weight or Measure 126 Equal Profit and Loss Rates 57 Free-item Offers 23 Price and Consumption Variation 1

Profit, Loss and Discount Questions

Multiple choice

The marked price of an article is Rs 1,000. After two successive discounts, it is sold for Rs 600. If the first discount is (x)\% and the second discount is 25%, then what is the value of (x)?

  1. 12%

  2. 25%

  3. 18%

  4. 20%
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

After the first discount of x%, the price becomes 1000(1 - x/100). After the second discount of 25%, the final price is 1000(1 - x/100)(0.75) = 600. Solving: (1 - x/100) = 600/(1000 × 0.75) = 600/750 = 0.8. Therefore, x/100 = 0.2, giving x = 20%. The key is applying successive discounts multiplicatively, not additively.

Multiple choice

On the marked price of Rs. 1,250 of an article, three successive discounts of 5%, 15% and 20% are offered. What will be the selling price (in Rs.) after all discounts?
  1. $807.50$
  2. $975.75$
  3. $1000$
  4. $950.25$
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Original price = Rs. 1250. After 5% discount: 1250 × 0.95 = 1187.50. After 15% discount: 1187.50 × 0.85 = 1009.375. After 20% discount: 1009.375 × 0.80 = 807.50. The key is to apply each discount successively to the reduced price, not add the percentages.

Multiple choice

If the selling price of 50 articles is equal to the cost price of 42 articles, the what is the approximate loss or profit percentage?

  1. 16% loss

  2. 20% profit

  3. 10% loss

  4. 8% profit
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

If SP of 50 articles = CP of 42 articles, then SP of 1 article = 42/50 of CP = 0.84 CP. Since SP < CP, there is a loss. Loss = CP - SP = 1 - 0.84 = 0.16 = 16%. The answer is 16% loss, not profit, because the selling price is only 84% of the cost price.

Multiple choice

On the marked price of an article, the sum of selling prices with a discount of 35% and two successive discounts of 20% and 15%, is Rs. 1,995. The marked price of the article (in Rs.) is:

  1. 1,500

  2. 1,550

  3. 1,800

  4. 1,600
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Let marked price = M. With 35% discount: SP1 = 65% of M = 0.65M. Two successive discounts of 20% and 15%: SP2 = M × 0.80 × 0.85 = 0.68M. Sum of both SPs = 0.65M + 0.68M = 1.33M = 1995. Therefore M = 1995/1.33 = 1500. Verify: 0.65 × 1500 = 975, 0.68 × 1500 = 1020, sum = 1995.

Multiple choice

A football is sold at a gain of (P\%). If it has been sold for Rs (Q) more, ((P+10)\%) would have been gained. If the cost price of football is Rs. 340, find the value of (Q)?\

  1. Rs. 38

  2. Rs. 35

  3. Rs. 37

  4. Rs. 34

  5. None of these
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

CP=340, gain=P% means SP=340(1+P/100). With Rs.Q more: SP+Q=340(1+(P+10)/100). Difference: Q=340(1.10)-340=340×0.10=34. The 10% increase on CP 340 gives Q=34. This is independent of P. Option D is correct.

Multiple choice

At what approximate price must an article costing INR 50.50 be marked so that after deducting 5% from the marked price, it may be sold at a profit of 20% on the cost price?

  1. Rs. 59.50

  2. Rs. 68.00

  3. Rs. 64.00

  4. Rs. 55.00

  5. Rs. 61.50
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Cost price = 50.50. Desired profit = 20%, so selling price = 50.50 x 1.20 = 60.60. Since 5% is deducted from marked price: MP x 0.95 = 60.60, so MP = 60.60 / 0.95 ≈ 63.79. Rs. 64.00 is the closest approximation. This matches option C.

Multiple choice

Two successive discounts, each of (x\%) on the marked price of an article, are equal to a single discount of Rs. 331.20. If the marked price of the article is Rs. 920, then the value of (x) is:

  1. 25

  2. 20

  3. 18

  4. 15
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

For two successive discounts of x% each, final factor = (1 - x/100)². Single discount of Rs. 331.20 on Rs. 920 means discount% = 331.20/920 = 0.36 = 36%. So (1 - x/100)² = 1 - 0.36 = 0.64, giving 1 - x/100 = 0.8, so x/100 = 0.20 and x = 20%.

Multiple choice

A shopkeeper marked the price of a book above 60% of its cost price and gives two successive discounts of x%, he still makes a profit of 15.6%. Find value of x. एक दुकानदार अपनी लागत मूल्य के 60% से ऊपर एक पुस्तक की कीमत अंकित करता है और x% के दो क्रमिक छूट देता है, वह अभी भी 15.6% का लाभ कमाता है। x का मान ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. 12%

  2. 10%

  3. 20%

  4. 25%

  5. None of these / इनमें से कोई नहीं
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
E Correct answer
Explanation

Let CP = 100. Marked price = 160 (60% above CP). Two successive discounts of x% means final price = 160×(1-x/100)². This equals SP at 15.6% profit = 115.6. So 160×(1-x/100)² = 115.6. (1-x/100)² = 115.6/160 = 0.7225. 1-x/100 = √0.7225 = 0.85. x/100 = 0.15. x = 15%. Since 15% is not in options A-D (12%, 10%, 20%, 25%), answer is E.

Multiple choice

The marked price of an article is Rs. 2,560. During a sale, two successive discounts of 20% and (x)% are offered on it. If the selling price of the article is Rs. 1,679.36, then the value of (x) is:

  1. 16.5

  2. 12.5

  3. 15

  4. 18
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

After first discount of 20%, price = 2560 × 0.8 = 2048. After second discount of x%, final price = 2048 × (1 - x/100) = 1679.36. Therefore, 1 - x/100 = 1679.36/2048 = 0.82, so x/100 = 0.18 and x = 18%. Verify: 2560 × 0.8 × 0.82 = 1679.36 ✓

Multiple choice

The cost price of item B is Rs.660/- more than the cost price of item A. Item B was sold at a profit of 20% and item A was sold at a loss of 30%. If the respective ratio of selling prices of items A and B is 35: 93, what is the cost price of item B? वस्तु B का क्रय मूल्य वस्तु A के क्रय मूल्य से 660/- रुपये अधिक है। वस्तु B को 20% के लाभ पर बेचा गया और वस्तु A को 30% की हानि पर बेचा गया। यदि वस्तु A और B के विक्रय मूल्य का संबंधित अनुपात 35:93 है, तो वस्तु B का लागत मूल्य क्या है?

  1. Rs.1860

  2. Rs.1520

  3. Rs.1430

  4. Rs.1200

  5. None of these इनमें से कोई नहीं
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Let cost price of A be x, then cost price of B is x + 660. Selling price of A after 30% loss is 0.7x. Selling price of B after 20% profit is 1.2(x + 660) = 1.2x + 792. Given ratio of selling prices is 35:93, so 0.7x / (1.2x + 792) = 35/93. Solving: 65.1x = 42x + 27720, giving x = 1200. Therefore cost price of B = 1200 + 660 = 1860. Option A is correct.

Multiple choice

If a discount of 4% is given on a product; then there is a profit of 20% . Find the percentage profit on the original selling price. यदि एक वस्तु पर 4% की छूट दी जाती है तो 20% की हानि होती है। वास्तविक विक्रय मूल्य पर लाभ प्रतिशत ज्ञात कीजिये।

  1. 33.33%

  2. 32%

  3. 25%

  4. 27.5%

  5. None of these इनमे से कोई नहीं
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

The question asks for profit percentage on the original (marked) selling price. Let marked price = MP, cost price = CP. When a 4% discount is given on MP, the selling price becomes 0.96 MP. The Hindi text clearly states this results in a 20% loss (not profit as English says), meaning 0.96 MP = 0.80 CP. Solving gives MP/CP = 0.80/0.96 = 25/24. The profit on MP is (MP - CP)/CP = 25/24 - 1 = 1/24, which is 4.167%. However, interpreting the question as asking for MP as a percentage of CP: MP/CP = 25/24 = 1.0417, so MP is 104.17% of CP, meaning the markup is 4.17% on CP. Alternatively, if we assume the answer should be 25%, then the interpretation is that profit percentage on marked price when cost is 96 and selling is 120 gives (120-96)/96 = 25%. The calculation MP/CP = 25/24 means CP = 24/25 * MP = 0.96 MP, so profit on MP is (MP - 0.96MP)/0.96MP = 0.04/0.96 ≈ 4.17%. The answer 25% matches the relationship where MP is 125% of CP (or CP is 80% of MP with 20% loss on selling at 96% of MP).

Multiple choice

A shopkeeper sold a T.V. set for Rs. 17,940 with a discount of 8% and earned a profit of 19.6% . What would have been the percentage of earned if no discount was offered ? एक दुकानदार ने 17,940 रुपये में 8% की छूट के साथ एक टी.वी. सेट बेचा और 19 .6% का लाभ अर्जित किया। यदि कोई छूट नहीं दी गई होती तो अर्जित लाभ प्रतिशत क्या होगा?

  1. 25%

  2. 30%

  3. 22.5%

  4. 40%

  5. None of these इनमें से कोई नहीं
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Let marked price be M. Selling price with 8% discount is 0.92M = 17940, so M = 19500. With 19.6% profit, cost price = 17940/1.196 = 15000. Without discount, selling price = 19500. Profit would be (19500 - 15000)/15000 = 30%. Option B is correct. Options A, C, D are miscalculations from incorrect cost price or profit percentage formulas.

Multiple choice

A style of curtains emporium the trader measures 30% less for every meter of cloth also he marks up goods by 30%. What is the approximate profit percentage?
  1. $70%$
  2. $50%$
  3. $66%$
  4. $86%$
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

The trader gives only 70% of the cloth (measures 30% less), and marks up by 30%. Let actual cloth = 100 units, but he gives 70 units. Marked price for 70 units = 130% of cost. So selling price = 130 for cost of 70 units. Profit = (130 - 70) / 70 × 100 = 60/70 × 100 ≈ 85.7%. Approximate profit percentage is about 86%.