Law Legal Studies · Civics Polity

Legal Principles and Doctrines

2,539 Questions

Legal principles and doctrines establish the foundational rules of jurisprudence and civil rights. Questions cover constitutional reasonable restrictions, courtroom evidence standards, and property laws. These topics are strictly necessary for law legal studies exams and judicial services prelims.

Constitutional doctrinesGuardianship rightsExpert testimony standardsCriminal trial instructionsContractual authorityRegistration law principles

Legal Principles and Doctrines Questions

Multiple choice
  1. instituted prior to the suit in question

  2. decided prior to the suit in question

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Under Section 10 CPC, the term 'former suit' specifically refers to a suit that has been instituted and decided prior to the suit in question. A suit that is merely instituted but not yet decided would fall under Section 11 (res judicata) once decided, or under sub judice if still pending. The key word is 'decided' - a former suit must have reached a conclusive determination.

Multiple choice
  1. any adult male member of his family

  2. any adult female member of his family

  3. a servant engaged by the defendant at his residence

  4. Both (1) and (2)

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Under Order 5 Rule 16 CPC, when the defendant cannot be served at residence due to absence with no reasonable expectation of return and no empowered agent is available, service may be made on any adult member of the family (male or female) who is residing with the defendant. The law does not discriminate based on gender, and servants are specifically excluded under the proviso.

Multiple choice
  1. A representative suit may be instituted by one or more persons for the benefit of all interested persons with the permission of the court.

  2. Notice of the institution of a representative suit must be given by public advertisement at the plaintiff's expense to all interested persons whereby reason of their number, personal service is not reasonably practicable.

  3. Any person for whose benefit a representative suit has been instituted may apply to join as a party thereto.

  4. The person(s) who instituted the suit or person(s) who joined as party have unrestricted right to compromise with the defendant.

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Under Order 1 Rule 8 CPC, parties in a representative suit cannot compromise without the court's permission. Rule 8(6) explicitly requires court approval for any compromise or settlement to ensure it doesn't adversely affect the rights of absent persons. The other options correctly state representative suit procedure.

Multiple choice
  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (ii) and (iii)

  3. (i) and (iv)

  4. All of these

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Section 2(2) CPC defines 'decree' to include: (i) formal expression of adjudication conclusively determining rights, AND (iv) rejection of plaint (not just dismissal). Order 43 Rule 1 provides that certain appeals lie as appeals from decrees, and Order 22 provides that abatement and dismissal of suits for default don't qualify as decrees. Therefore, only (i) and (iv) are correct - (ii) and (iii) are expressly excluded.

Multiple choice
  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (i) and (iii)

  3. (ii) and (iii)

  4. All of these

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Under Order 8 Rule 6 CPC, a defendant may set up a counter-claim (i) for any right accruing from the same cause of action, and (iii) it cannot exceed the court's pecuniary jurisdiction. However, (ii) is incorrect because a counter-claim must be filed WITH the written defense, not after - Order 8 Rule 6(3) requires it to be included in the written statement or defense.

Multiple choice
  1. summons are not served on the defendant in consequence of the failure of the plaintiff to take proper steps like filing of court fee, postal charges or requisite number of copies of plaint

  2. neither party appears when the suit is called on for hearing

  3. plaintiff, after summons to defendant has returned unserved, fails to apply for fresh summons for seven days

  4. All of these

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Under Order 5 Rule 20 and Order 9 Rule 1, suits may be dismissed for: failure to take proper steps for service (like court fee, postal charges, copies); where neither party appears; or where plaintiff fails to apply for fresh summons within 7 days after unservice of summons. All three situations are valid grounds for dismissal under CPC provisions.

Multiple choice
  1. the plaintiff has the right to begin

  2. if the defendant admits the facts alleged by the plaintiff and contends that on some additional facts alleged by the defendant, the plaintiff is not entitled to any relief, the defendant has the right to begin

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Under Order 18 Rule 1 CPC, the plaintiff has the right to begin at the hearing stage. However, under Order 18 Rule 2, if the defendant admits the plaintiff's facts but claims additional facts defeat the plaintiff's case (confession and avoidance), the defendant has the right to begin. Both statements are correct.

Multiple choice
  1. None of these

  2. All of these

  3. Only (i) and (ii)

  4. Only (ii) and (iii)

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Under Order 12 CPC, admissions can be secured by three types of notices: (i) notice of admission of case (Order 12 Rule 1), (ii) notice to admit documents (Order 12 Rule 2), and (iii) notice to admit facts (Order 12 Rule 3). All three methods are valid CPC provisions for obtaining admissions from the opposite party.

Multiple choice
  1. Where issues both of law and of fact arise and if the court is of opinion that the case may be disposed of on an issue relating to jurisdiction, it may postpone the settlement of other issues until after the issue of jurisdiction has been determined.

  2. Where a suit may be disposed of on preliminary issue, the court need not pronounce judgment on other issues settled in the case.

  3. The preliminary issue may relate to a bar the suit created by law for the time being in force.

  4. None of these

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

The incorrect statement is B. Under Order 14 Rule 2 CPC, where a suit can be disposed of on a preliminary issue (like jurisdiction or bar created by law), the court MUST still pronounce judgment on ALL issues finally settled, including preliminary issues. Option A is correct (jurisdiction issues can be decided first), C is correct (preliminary issues include legal bars), and D merely confirms the question.

Multiple choice
  1. Where on the death of a defendant the right to sue survivers against the other surviving defendant alone, the case may proceed against the surviving defendant.

  2. Where on the death of a defendant the right to sue does not survive against the other surviving defendant alone, the case shall abate against the deceased defendant it no application is made within the time limited by law for the legal representative of the deceased defendant to be made a party.

  3. There shall be no abatement by reason of death of either party between the conclusion of the hearing and the pronouncing of the judgment.

  4. All of these

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Order 22 Rule 1 CPC provides for substitution of legal representatives when a defendant dies. If right to sue survives against remaining defendants, case proceeds against them alone (Option A). If right does not survive, case abates unless application is made within time limit for legal representative to be made party (Option B). Order 23 Rule 1 states no abatement occurs between conclusion of hearing and pronouncing judgment (Option C). All three statements correctly reflect CPC provisions on death of parties.

Multiple choice
  1. If the Court is satisfied that a suit must fail by reason of some formal defect, the plaintiff may be allowed to withdraw the suit with liberty to institute a fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter.

  2. If the plaintiff withdraws from a suit without permission of the court he may bring fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter.

  3. If there are more than one plaintiffs, one of them may withdraw the suit without the consent of other plaintiffs.

  4. All of these

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Order 23 Rule 1 CPC allows withdrawal of suit with liberty to file fresh suit when court is satisfied that suit must fail due to formal defect. This prevents injustice from technical defects. Withdrawal without court permission (Option B) bars fresh suit under Order 23 Rule 1(3). When there are multiple plaintiffs, consent of all is required unless court allows otherwise. Option A alone correctly states the law on withdrawal with liberty.

Multiple choice
  1. only to the defendant since the plaintiff is the master of the suit

  2. even if they relate to matters not in question in the suit

  3. not withstanding the objection taken by the opposite party

  4. if it considers the same necessary for disposing of the case fairly

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Order 11 Rule 2 CPC empowers court to grant leave to deliver interrogatories if it considers this necessary for fair disposal of case. The court exercises discretion based on case needs, not rigid rules about which party may seek them (A is wrong). Interrogatories must relate to matters in question (B is wrong). Court can grant leave despite objections if justified. Option D correctly captures the discretionary nature of this power.

Multiple choice
  1. it conclusively determines the rights of the parties

  2. no appeal has been preferred against the decree

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Section 2(2) CPC defines 'decree' as formal expression of adjudication conclusively determining rights of parties with respect to matters in controversy. A preliminary decree that does not finally determine rights is not a 'decree'. For a decree to be final, it must both conclusively determine rights AND be unappealable (appeal period exhausted or no appeal filed). Option C correctly combines both requirements.

Multiple choice
  1. May be invoked for recovery of a liquidated demand in money payable by the defendant arising out a written contract

  2. May be applied suo motu by any civil court in its discretion is the interest of expeditions adjudication

  3. Requires the defendant to seek leave to defend which, if granted, must be unconditional

  4. All these statements are not correct

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Order 37 CPC provides summary procedure for suits to recover liquidated demand based on written contract, dishonored negotiable instrument, or trust recoverable by trustee. Option A correctly states one such ground. Summary procedure is not suo motu - defendant must seek leave to defend (B is wrong). Leave to defend may be conditional or unconditional (C is wrong). Option A alone correctly states the law under Order 37.

Multiple choice
  1. fraud

  2. misrepresentation

  3. undue influence

  4. free consent

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Inadequacy of consideration alone does not vitiate a contract. However, it may be relevant in determining whether there was free consent when combined with other factors. The law presumes parties are the best judges of value, so inadequacy is relevant only as part of a broader consent analysis.