Law Legal Studies · Civics Polity

Legal Principles and Doctrines

2,539 Questions

Legal principles and doctrines establish the foundational rules of jurisprudence and civil rights. Questions cover constitutional reasonable restrictions, courtroom evidence standards, and property laws. These topics are strictly necessary for law legal studies exams and judicial services prelims.

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Legal Principles and Doctrines Questions

Multiple choice

Which of the following correctly explains res ipsa loquitor?

  1. Rule of evidence

  2. Rule of rebuttal of evidence

  3. Rule of negligence

  4. Rule of vicarious liability

  5. None of the above
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Res ipsa loquitor is a Latin term which means the thing speaks for itself. It is a maxim that infers negligence from the very nature of an accident or injury in the absence of a direct evidence. Thus, it is a rule of evidence.

Multiple choice

Match the following:

 
List I (Legal Maxims) List II (Meaning of Maxims)
I. Alteram non laedere A. Welfare of the people is supreme law
II. Damnum sine injuria B. Injury without damage
III. Salus populi suprema lex C. No harm to anyone
IV. Injuria sine damnum D. Damages without injury

  1. I - B, II - D, III - C, IV - A

  2. I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C

  3. I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B

  4. I - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B

  5. None of the above
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

This is the correct option. Alteram non laedere - Not to harm anyone Damnum sine injuria - Damages without injury Salus populi suprema lex - Welfare of the people is supreme law Injuria sine damnum - Injury without damage

Multiple choice

Match the following:

 
List I (Legal Maxims) List II (Meaning of Maxims)
I. Audi alteram partem A. Of an illegal cause, there can be no lawsuit
II. Ex turpi causa non oritur action B. He who acts through another, acts himself
III. Novus actus inteveniens C. Listen to the other side
IV. Quit facit per alium facit per se D. New intervening act

  1. I - B, II - D, III - C, IV - A

  2. I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C

  3. I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B

  4. I - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B

  5. None of the above
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

This is the correct match. Audi alteram partem - Listen to the other side Ex turpi causa non oritur action - Of an illegal cause, there can be no lawsuit Novus actus interveniens - New intervening act Quit facit per alium facit per se - He who acts through another, acts himself

Multiple choice

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. In conspiracy, there is no distinction between principal and accessory.

  2. In conspiracy, principal and accessory are distinct.

  3. There has to be a distinction between principal and accessory in all offences.

  4. None of these
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Under criminal conspiracy law (Section 120A IPC), all conspirators are equally liable for the conspiracy itself regardless of their role. There is no distinction between principal offender and accessory in the offence of conspiracy - every member of the conspiracy is jointly and severally liable. This principle is fundamental to conspiracy law.

Multiple choice

‘P’ is found in possession of a document purporting to be a will of ‘Q’ in favour of ‘P’, bearing forged signatures of ‘Q’, intending that the will shall be fraudulently used as genuine after the death of ‘Q’. ‘P’ has committed

  1. no offence as it is mere preparatory to lay a claim

  2. no offence till the will is used

  3. has committed an offence as mere possession of such document in such circumstances is penal

  4. None of these
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

'P' possesses a forged will with fraudulent intent. Under Section 477A IPC (or relevant forgery provisions), mere possession of a forged document with intent to use it fraudulently is an offence even before actual use. The intent to defraud Q's estate combined with possession of the forged document itself constitutes the offence.

Multiple choice

In answer to the charge of defamation, which of the following is/are good defence(s)?

  1. Imputation which is true and published for the public good.

  2. Opinion respecting the conduct of a public servant concerning discharge of duties of office expressed in good faith.

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. None of these
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Defamation under IPC Section 499 has specific exceptions (defences) in Section 499 itself. Exception 1 covers imputation of truth when made for public good. Exception 2 covers opinions expressed in good faith regarding the conduct of public servants in their official capacity. Exception 3 covers fair comments on public events. Both statements (1) and (2) represent legally recognized good defences to a defamation charge.

Multiple choice

Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. Inquiry means every inquiry including a trial conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure by a magistrate or court.

  2. Inquiry means every inquiry other than a trial conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure by a magistrate or court.

  3. Investigation includes at the proceedings under the Code of Criminal Procedure for the collection of evidence conducted by a magistrate.

  4. All of these
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Under CrPC, 'inquiry' (Section 2(g)) means every inquiry other than a trial conducted by a magistrate or court - it includes judicial proceedings like inquiries under Section 202 (dispensing with inquiry) but excludes the trial itself. 'Investigation' (Section 2(h)) is conducted by police officers (not magistrates) and includes all proceedings under CrPC for collection of evidence. Only statement (2) correctly reflects the statutory definition.

Multiple choice

In order to compel appearance of a person who is absconding in spite of a warrant of arrest being issued against him, his property may be ordered to be attached simultaneously with issuance of a proclamation under section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, provided that the court is satisfied that such person is

  1. about to dispose of the whole or any part of his property

  2. about to remove the whole or any part of property from the local jurisdiction of the Court

  3. Either condition in (1) or (2) exists

  4. Both conditions in (1) and (2) co-exist
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Under CrPC Section 82, when issuing a proclamation requiring an absconding accused to appear, the court may simultaneously order attachment of his property. This attachment power can be exercised if the court is satisfied that the person is EITHER about to dispose of the whole or any part of his property OR about to remove it from the court's local jurisdiction. Both conditions need not coexist - either one is sufficient.

Multiple choice

Consider the following statement(s).

A police officer has the power to arrest any person without an order from a magistrate or warrant of arrest, if he has reason to suspect his complicity in a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years, provided that he is satisfied for reasons in writing that such arrest is necessary

(i) to prevent such person from committing any further offence (ii) for proper investigation of the offence (iii) to prevent such person from tampering with or causing the evidence of the offence to disappear (iv) to compel the absconding co-accused to surrender

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (ii) and (iii)

  3. (i), (ii) and (iii)

  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Under CrPC Section 41(1)(a), a police officer may arrest without warrant for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment extending to 7 years if the arrest is necessary for: (i) preventing further offence, (ii) proper investigation, OR (iii) preventing evidence tampering. Compelling absconding co-accused to surrender (iv) is not mentioned in Section 41(1)(a) - that requires different procedures like proclamation under Section 82. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Multiple choice

Indicate the correct statement regarding the rights of an arrestee. A person arrested without warrant has the right to

(i) be informed of the particulars of the offence for which he is arrested (ii) have a relative or friend named by him to be informed about his arrest (iii) have an advocate of his choice remain present throughout interrogation (iv) be medically examined by a medical officer

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)

  2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

  3. (i), (ii) and (iv)

  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

All four rights are guaranteed to arrestees under CrPC: information of grounds (Section 50), information to relative/friend (Section 50A), lawyer during interrogation (Section 303), and medical examination (Section 54). These are fundamental protections ensuring dignity and legal representation.

Multiple choice

Who can file an application for Plea-Bargaining in the court in which an offence is pending for trial?

  1. The Public Prosecutor

  2. The victim of the offence

  3. The Investigating Officer

  4. None of these
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Under Chapter XXI-A CrPC on plea bargaining, only the accused can file an application for plea bargaining. Neither the Public Prosecutor, victim, nor Investigating Officer has statutory authority to initiate plea bargaining proceedings.

Multiple choice

'A' faced trial for cheating 'Z' by dishonestly inducing him to lend money by knowingly pledging fake diamonds. 'Z' died during trial and was survived by a son 'X'. 'X' moved an application in the Trial Court to compound the offence. Which of the following is the correct legal preposition?

  1. 'X' is not competent to compound the offence.

  2. On the death of complainant 'Z', the trial proceedings shall abate.

  3. Court cannot entertain such an application after death of the complainant.

  4. 'X' can compound the offence with the consent of the Court.
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Under Section 320(8) CrPC, the criminal court can permit compounding by a legal heir if the original complainant is dead. The son, as legal heir, can compound the offense with court consent. The trial does not abate if the offense is compoundable.

Multiple choice

The proceedings before a criminal court are vitiated if the presiding magistrate who is not empowered by law to do so

  1. issues search warrant erroneously but in good faith

  2. holds inquest under section 176 of Code of Criminal Procedure erroneously but in good faith

  3. tries and offender summarily

  4. All of these
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

If a magistrate without summary trial power under Section 260 attempts such trial, the proceedings are vitiated as it amounts to lack of jurisdiction. Erroneous but good faith orders for search warrants (Section 93) or inquest (Section 176) don't vitiate.

Multiple choice

A Metropolitan Magistrate may release an accused on bail in non-bailable offence except in following case(s) if

  1. there are reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life

  2. there are reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of a cognizable offence and he has been previously convicted of an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years

  3. he had been previously convicted on two or more occasions of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years

  4. All of these
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

Section 439(1) CrPC restricts bail grant by Metropolitan Magistrates in non-bailable cases when: reasonable belief of guilt for death/life imprisonment, previous conviction for 7+ year cognizable offense, or two+ prior convictions for 3+ year cognizable offenses.

Multiple choice

Which is the correct essential conditions for applicability of the rule of sub judice?

  1. The matter in issue in the subsequent suit must be directly and substantially in issue in the previous suit.

  2. The parties must be litigating under the same title in both the suits.

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

The rule of sub judice under Section 10 CPC requires that: (1) the matter in issue in the subsequent suit must be directly and substantially in issue in a former suit pending between the same parties, and (2) the parties must be litigating under the same title in both suits. Both conditions are essential for the rule to apply.