Law Legal Studies · General Awareness

Indian Law and Jurisprudence

1,379 Questions

Indian law and jurisprudence cover statutory frameworks like the Companies Act, Consumer Protection Act, and Indian Penal Code, alongside landmark judicial precedents. Legal topics are crucial for law entrance exams, judiciary examinations, and general awareness papers. Answer these questions to learn about defamation, administrative tribunals, and criminal procedure code sections.

IPC and defamation lawsAdministrative Tribunals ActConsumer Protection ActCriminal Procedure Code sectionsArbitration and Conciliation ActMental Health Act provisions

Indian Law and Jurisprudence Questions

Multiple choice
  1. i and ii

  2. i and iii

  3. ii and iii

  4. iii and iv

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

Under sections 13 and 14 of the protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the power of ‘enquiry and investigation’ was given to Human Rights Commission. 

Multiple choice
  1. Exceeds rupees fifty lakhs, but does not exceed rupees one crore

  2. Exceeds rupees twenty lakhs, but does not exceed rupees one crore

  3. Exceeds rupees ten lakhs, but does not exceed rupees one crore

  4. Exceeds rupees one crore

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

The pecuniary jurisdiction of the State Commission under the Consumer Protection Act when the value of the subject matter exceeds rupees twenty lakhs, but does not exceed rupees one crore.

Multiple choice
  1. i and ii

  2. ii and iii

  3. iii and iv

  4. i, ii, iii and iv

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

In Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh and Shri Sachidanand Pandey Vs. State of West Bengal, fundamental duties are judicially invoked. 

Multiple choice
  1. An offence as per Section 166-A

  2. For continuing to remain in an unlawful assembly as per Section 145

  3. For touching any point material as per Section 199

  4. For giving false information as per Section 201

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

As provided under Section 166-A of Indian Penal Code, when a public servant knowingly disobeys any direction of the law which prohibits him from requiring the attendance at any place of any person for the purpose of investigation shall be liable to be punished.

Multiple choice
  1. Construction of military road

  2. Injury to the plaintiff during the lathi-charge by the police to disperse the unlawful crowd

  3. A Government jeep being taken from the workshop to the collector’s bungalow for his use

  4. Distribution of meals to army personnel

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

A Government jeep being taken from the workshop to the collector’s bungalow for his use is not a sovereign function of the State.

Multiple choice
  1. Requesting for sexual favour as per Section 354-A(1)(ii)

  2. Sexual harassment as per Section 354(1)(i)

  3. Outraging of modesty as per Section 354

  4. Attempt to rape as per Section 370(A)

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

A man doing physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures shall be liable to be punished under Section 354 (1)(i) of the Indian Penal Code.

Multiple choice
  1. 1, 2, 3, 4

  2. 2, 4, 1, 3

  3. 1, 4, 2, 3

  4. 3, 2, 4, 1

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Right of passage over Indian Territory case, 1960 Temple of Preah Vihear, 1962 South-West Africa case, 1966 Frontier Dispute, 1986

Multiple choice
  1. libel

  2. public nuisance

  3. contempt of court

  4. All of the above

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

The Indian Penal Code prohibits fixing of liability on a person so long he is authorised or gives assent to it. But there is an exceptional situation arising out of libel, public nuisance and contempt of court.

Multiple choice
  1. Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

  3. (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

  4. (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

Both the statements are correct. The conciliation officer has no power under the Industrial Disputes Act when neither industrial disputes exist nor are apprehended. Conciliation officer only investigates the industrial disputes which exist or are apprehended. 

Multiple choice
  1. Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act, which lays down the rules of presumption of legitimacy, is applicable to Muslims.

  2. Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act, which lays down the rules of presumption of legitimacy, supersedes the rules of presumption of the Muslim law.

  3. Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act applies to an irregular Muslim marriage.

  4. Both (2) and (3)

  5. None of these

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act applies to only valid marriages, not to irregular or void marriages.

Multiple choice
  1. two thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is less

  2. three thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is less

  3. four thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is less

  4. five thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is less

  5. ten thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction whichever is less

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
B Correct answer
Explanation

The maximum amount that can be awarded by the court is Rs. 3000.

Multiple choice
  1. 16

  2. 10

  3. 17

  4. 20

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
A Correct answer
Explanation

The Doctrine of Caveat Emptor ('let the buyer beware') is laid down in Section 16 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930. This doctrine places the responsibility on the buyer to examine goods before purchase. The seller is not liable for defects that could be discovered through reasonable inspection, subject to certain exceptions and conditions in the Act.