Indian Law and Jurisprudence

Option (1) is incorrect: Section 145 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with cross-examination as to previous statements in writing. Option (2) is incorrect: Section 159 of the Indian Evidence Act states provisions for refreshing memory. Option (3) is correct: Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act provides judge’s power to put questions or order production. Option (4) is incorrect: Section 157 of the Indian Evidence Act states that the former statements of witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact. 

Option (1) is correct: Section 460 of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings. Option (2) is incorrect: Section 461 of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for irregularities which vitiate proceedings. Option (3) is incorrect: Section 462 of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for proceedings in wrong place. Option (4) is incorrect: Section 466 of the Code of Criminal Procedure states provisions for defect or error not to make attachment unlawful. 

Option (1) is incorrect: No such provision under the Indian Penal Code. Option (2) is incorrect: No such provision under the Indian Penal Code. Option (3) is correct: Section 53 of Indian Penal Code provides five types of punishment. Option (4) is incorrect: No such provision under the Indian Penal Code.  

Option (1) is incorrect: Section 76 and 79 of the IPC provide the general exception of mistake of fact, not mistake of law. Option (2) is correct: Section 76 and 79 of the IPC provide the general exception of mistake of fact. Option (3) is incorrect: Section 76 and 79 of the IPC provide the general exception of mistake of fact, not mistake of law. Option (4) is incorrect: Section 76 and 79 of the IPC provide the general exception of mistake of fact, not mistake of law.

Option (1) is incorrect: Section 76 of the IPC provides for acts done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law. Option (2) is correct: Section 78 of the IPC provides for act done pursuant to the judgment or order of the court. Option (3) is incorrect: Section 77 of the IPC provides for act of judge when acting judicially. Option (4) is incorrect: Section 80 of the IPC provides for accident in doing a lawful act.  

Option (1) is incorrect: Section 511 deals with the provisions for attempt of those offences of which no specific provisions has been laid down in the IPC. So, attempt to riot falls under Section 511. Option (2) is correct: Section 511 of the IPC does not apply in the case of attempt to murder.  Option (3) is incorrect: Section 511 of the IPC deals with the provisions for attempt of those offences of which no specific provisions has been laid down in the IPC. So, attempt to theft falls under Section 511. Option (4) is incorrect: Section 511 of the IPC deals with the provisions for attempt of those offences of which no specific provisions has been laid down in the IPC. So, attempt to affray falls under Section 511. 

Option (1) is incorrect: Section 29 of the Indian Evidence Act provides for confession otherwise relevant not to become irrelevant because of promise of secrecy, etc. Option (2) is correct: Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act states no confession made by any person whilst he is in the custody of a police officer, unless it be made in the immediate presence of a magistrate, shall be proved as against such person. Option (3) is incorrect: Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act provides confession to police officer not to be proved as against a person accused of any offence. Option (4) is incorrect: Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act states about how much of information received from accused may be proved.

Option (1) is incorrect: Section 34 of the IPC doesn’t create a substantive offence. Option (2) is correct: Section 34 of the IPC is a rule of evidence. It is read along with alleged Sections. Option (3) is incorrect: Only option (2) is the correct answer. Option (4) is incorrect: Only option (2) is the correct answer. 

Option (1) is incorrect: Under Section 89 of the CPC, the court can make a reference for arbitration, conciliation and mediation. Option (2) is incorrect: Under Section 89 of the CPC, the court can make a reference for arbitration, conciliation and mediation. Option (3) is correct: Under Section 89 of the CPC, the court cannot make a reference for negotiation. Option (4) is incorrect: Under Section 89 of the CPC, the court can make a reference for arbitration, conciliation and mediation.

Option (1) is incorrect: Section 69 of the Indian Contract Act deals with reimbursement of person paying money due by another, in payment of which he is interested. Option (2) is incorrect: Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act deals with obligation of person enjoying benefit of non-gratuitous act. Option (3) is correct: Under Section 71 of Indian Contract Act, a person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee. Option (4) is incorrect: Section 72 of the Indian Contract Act deals with liability of person to whom money is paid, or thing delivered, by mistake or under coercion.  

Section 34 IPC (common intention) requires active participation in the criminal act. Section 149 IPC (vicarious liability of unlawful assembly) punishes all members of the assembly even if they only had passive membership. Option C correctly captures this key distinction. Option A is wrong (Section 34 requires minimum 2 persons, not 5). Option B is incorrect (Section 149 creates substantive vicarious liability, not just evidentiary rule).

CrPC Section 100 outlines mandatory search procedures: (a) two independent respectable inhabitants must witness, (b) search memo must be signed by witnesses, (c) occupant or presence should be ensured. However, the signature of the accused on the search-list is NOT an essential requirement - the search can be validly conducted even if the accused refuses to sign. Option (4) correctly identifies the non-essential procedure.

Under CrPC Section 167(2), when investigation is not complete within 90 days (or 60 days for offences punishable with less than 10 years imprisonment), the accused shall be released on bail if prepared to furnish bail. This right to bail is absolute and cannot be defeated by subsequent filing of charge sheet. Section 167(2) makes it clear that failure to complete investigation within the prescribed period entitles the accused to bail as a matter of right.

For offenses involving Central Government property, withdrawal requires Public Prosecutor appointed by State Government with Central Government permission (Section 321 CrPC). The Central Government must consent since the property belongs to it.

Section 34 of Arbitration Act 1996 lists limited grounds for setting aside awards: incapacity, invalid arbitration agreement, failure to follow proper procedure, award dealing with beyond-submission matters, or award conflicting with public policy of India. Since options A, B, and C are all valid grounds for setting aside an award under Section 34, the correct answer is 'None of these' (meaning none is NOT a ground - all ARE grounds).