Multiple choice

A ten-year comparison between India and China in terms of crop yields per acre revealed that when only planted acreage is compared, Chinese yields are equal to 60 percent of India yields. When total agricultural acreage (planted acreage plus fallow acreage) is compared, however, Chinese yield is 110 percent of India's yield.

From the information above, which of the following can be most reliably inferred about India and Chinese agriculture during the ten-year period?

  1. A higher percentage of total agricultural acreage was fallow in India than in China.

  2. India had more fallow acreage than planted acreage.

  3. Fewer total acres of available agricultural land were fallow in China than in India.

  4. China had more planted acreage than fallow acreage.

  5. China had greater land mass than India and, therefore, had greater chances of increasing planted acerage by converting fallow acreage.
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A Correct answer
Explanation

This is a simple inference type of question. When only planted acreage is compared, Indian yields are greater but when total agricultural acreage is compared, then Chinese yields are greater. This obviously means that India has more fallow area as compared to China, because only this would lead to the desired results. (To simplify the procedure, use the simple formula Yield = (Total Output) divided by (Planted Area + Fallow Area) The correct answer choice is (1). As a precaution, please note that nowhere are we told about the total planted area or total fallow area in India or China.

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