Multiple choice

Why did the Chola ruler Rajendra I invade the Shailendra empire?

  1. Because he wanted to spread his empire in sea areas

  2. Because he wanted to have control on the trade of spices in south-eastern countries with Arabia

  3. Because he wanted to remove the difficulties of Indian traders and to increase trade with China

  4. None of the above
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
C Correct answer
Explanation

Rajendra I invaded the Shailendra empire (Srivijaya empire) in Southeast Asia primarily to protect and promote the interests of Indian traders in the region and to facilitate trade with China. The Chola naval expedition of 1025-1026 CE targeted ports controlled by the Shailendras that were hindering Indian trade.

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