To answer this question, we need to understand the concept of verb tense and ownership.
Option A) "is belonging to me" - This option is incorrect because the verb "is belonging" is not the correct form of the verb "belong." The present tense of the verb "belong" is "belongs" and not "is belonging."
Option B) "belongs to me" - This option is correct because it uses the present tense form of the verb "belong" correctly. The phrase "belongs to me" indicates ownership in the present.
Option C) "belonged to me" - This option is incorrect because it uses the past tense form of the verb "belong." The phrase "belonged to me" indicates ownership in the past.
Option D) "has belonged to me" - This option is incorrect because it uses the present perfect tense of the verb "belong." The phrase "has belonged to me" indicates ownership in the past with a connection to the present. However, in this context, we are referring to ownership in the present, so the present tense "belongs" is more appropriate.
The correct answer is Option B) "belongs to me." This option is correct because it uses the present tense form of the verb "belong" to indicate ownership in the present.