Biology and Human Welfare

This test will boost the knowledge of the students about the topic and will help them for preparing their exams in a much better way.

100 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A young woman of 32 is found to have a largely solid ovarian neoplasm. Tumor markers were obtained and demonstrated a markedly elevated LDH value. The hCG and a-Fetoprotein were negative. Which of the following tumors is the most likely histology for this neoplasm?

  1. Dysgerminomas
  2. Gonadoblastoma
  3. Immature teratomas
  4. Choriocarcinoma
  5. Endodermal sinus tumor
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mutation in the RET oncogene is associated with increased risk of

  1. endometrial cancer
  2. PNET cancer
  3. prostate cancer
  4. adenocarcinoma
  5. medullary thyroid cancer
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The majority of ovarian epithelial cancers occurring on a hereditary basis originates in a woman with germline mutations in which of the following genes?

  1. pRb
  2. MSH2
  3. p53
  4. BRCA 1
  5. BRCA 2
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A CA 125 test may be used to monitor certain cancers during and after treatment. CA 125 is

  1. a tumor specific transplantation antigen
  2. a mucin-type glycoprotein
  3. a ganglioside
  4. useful for ovarian cancer screening in the general patient population
  5. an antigen which is frequently expressed by mucinous ovarian carcinomas
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements characterises lung cancer in an individual?

  1. Screening test has been proved beneficial.
  2. More than 80% are due to smoking.
  3. In the patients of lung cancers, around 30% are large cell anaplastic.
  4. The second lung cancer is rare in an individual.
  5. Lung cancer does not produce pain in the chest.
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Defects in neutrophil NADPH oxidase system causes which among the following diseases in human beings?

  1. Chronic granulomatous disease
  2. Chediak-Higashi disease
  3. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
  4. Hashimoto's disease
  5. Streptococcal infection
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is most commonly seen in African children with Burkitt's lymphoma?

  1. Chromosome 8q24 to Chromosome 2p12 translocation
  2. Chromosome 8q24 to Chromosome 14q32 translocation
  3. Deletion of the c-myc gene
  4. T-cell neoplasia
  5. Absence of EBV
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

HIV is the infection that causes AIDS. To which of the following receptors of human beings does the HIV bind itself?

  1. CD4
  2. IL-2 receptor
  3. NF kappa B
  4. Reverse transcriptase
  5. TNF receptors
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Strongly immunogenic tumors appear

  1. in virtually all cancers
  2. only in lymphoma and leukemia
  3. only in experimental animals
  4. only in elderly patients
  5. in immunosuppressed patients
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following is a coreceptor of HIV?

  1. RANTES
  2. CD8
  3. CD54
  4. CR5
  5. CXCR4
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements regarding SCID is false?

  1. Most cases of SCID are due to mutations in the gene encoding the common gamma chain.
  2. The condition is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern.
  3. The second most common form of SCID is caused by a defective enzyme.
  4. PNP is a key enzyme in the purine salvage pathway.
  5. The most common treatment for SCID is bone marrow transplantation.
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following HIV antigens provides a potential target for neutralising antibodies produced in the host?

  1. U3
  2. gp120
  3. Reverse transcriptase
  4. Protease
  5. Tat
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are not helpful in the diagnosis of AIDS?

  1. CD4 numbers
  2. CD8 numbers
  3. Skin tests to test bacterial antigens
  4. Lymph node biopsy
  5. Serum p24 antigen
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements doesnot characterises chronic lymphocytic leukemia?

  1. It usually has a very poor prognosis.
  2. It has a good prognosis only in those patients with circulating monoclonal immunoglobulin.
  3. It is mostly a disease of childhood.
  4. It is usually found in people over 50 years of age.
  5. It is a leukemia where both kappa and lambda light chains are found on the surface of the malignant cell.
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Secondary immunodeficiencies are acquired and are much more common. Which of the following is/are not linked with secondary immunodeficiency in human beings?

  1. Viral infection
  2. Lymphoproliferative disorders
  3. Cytotoxic drugs
  4. High fat diet
  5. Low iron diet
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Both DNA and RNA viruses have been shown to be capable of causing cancer in humans and thus, are known as oncogenic viruses. Which among the following is an oncovirus?

  1. Herpes zoster
  2. HIV-2
  3. Epstein-Barr virus
  4. Vesicular stomatitis virus
  5. Proteus mirabilis
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Boon and colleagues showed that syngeneic transplantable tumors, which mutate such that they express strong transplantation antigens, are rejected. What did they call these variants?

  1. Tum –
  2. Xenogeneic
  3. Tum +
  4. MCA
  5. Hapten
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mr. Verma is suffering from pancreatic carcinoma. In pancreatic carcinoma, the ras gene

  1. is absent
  2. is normal but is overexpressed
  3. has a large deletion
  4. contains a single point mutation, always at the same position
  5. contains a single point mutation, but not always at the same position
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

What is the cause of primary immunodeficiency producing susceptibility to infection by viruses and molds?

  1. B-cell deficiency
  2. T-cell deficiency
  3. Phagocyte deficiency
  4. Complement deficiency
  5. Eosinophil deficiency
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following techniques is utilised in detecting viral nucleic acids?

  1. Viral isolation
  2. Western blot
  3. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
  4. ELISA
  5. Viral differential test
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Doctor told Aruna that her father is suffering from a disease which occurs due to the deletions in T-cell CD154 (CD40L) gene. Which among the following diseases must the doctor be referring to?

  1. Hyper–IgM syndrome
  2. Congenital X-linked agammaglobulinemia
  3. IgA deficiency
  4. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
  5. Deficiency in cytotoxic T-cell activity
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

HLA-DR2 is a risk factor for which among the following diseases?

  1. Multiple sclerosis
  2. Insulin-dependent (type I) diabetes
  3. Breast cancer
  4. Lung cancer
  5. Blood cancer
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

T-helpers during HIV infection can be bypassed by all of the following, except

  1. failure of regulatory T-cells
  2. polyclonal activation of B-cells
  3. idiotypic mechanisms
  4. antigenic cross-reaction
  5. T-cell recognition of carrier complexed to autoantigen
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Autoantigen selection of responding B-cells during tumor formation in the body is indicated by

  1. germ line configuration of the antibody
  2. high affinity antibody
  3. expression of a public idiotype
  4. a monoclonal antibody response
  5. a response to many different autoantigens
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Cyclophosphamide is a commonly used drug in anticancer therapy. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding this drug?

  1. The structure is metabolised to release acrolein.
  2. It cannot be taken orally.
  3. It is comparitively non-toxic.
  4. It acts as a prodrug in the body.
  5. It is mainly used in the treatment of lymphomas.
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following molecules is/are involved in the gripping of cells to an extracellular matrix during a tumor progression in an individual?

  1. Cyclins
  2. Interleukins
  3. Angiostatin
  4. Integrins
  5. Kringle domains
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements does NOT characterise adenomas?

  1. Colons are the most common organs that are affected by adenomas.
  2. Breasts may be affected by fibroadenomas.
  3. The adenomas of adrenal gland are rarely cancerous.
  4. Adenomas of thyroids are present as thyroid nodules.
  5. Large adenomas in kidneys cause paraneoplastic syndromes.
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following terms is used to signify the ability of a cancer to invade other body parts of an individual and to produce secondary tumors?

  1. Mutagenesis
  2. Metastasis
  3. Apoptosis
  4. Carcinogenesis
  5. Epigenesis
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The growth of new blood vessels in the body is known as

  1. biosynthesis
  2. apoptosis
  3. angiogenesis
  4. metastasis
  5. metagenomics
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A benign neoplasm derived from glandular epithelial cells is referred to as

  1. papilloma
  2. polyp
  3. carcinoma
  4. adenoma
  5. sarcoid
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following is a naturally occurring product being studied as an anticancer agent in humans?

  1. Aclarubicin
  2. Depsipeptide
  3. Fumagillin
  4. Thalidomide
  5. Teclozan
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The anticancer therapy entangling the administration of an antibody linked to an enzyme is

  1. GDAPT
  2. GDEPT
  3. ADAPT
  4. ADEPT
  5. SIADH
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer is false?

  1. Pancreatic cancer rarely occurs before the age of 40.
  2. Signs and symptoms of the most common form of pancreatic cancer may include yellow skin or back pain.
  3. Neuroendocrine tumors are a diverse group of malignant tumors.
  4. Cigarette smoking is the best established avoidable risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
  5. At least 50% of people with pancreatic adenocarcinoma have diabetes at the time of diagnosis.
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The structural component of HIV required for cell–cell fusion is

  1. p2 protein
  2. p24
  3. gp 41
  4. gp 120
  5. gp 160
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following is an oncoprotein of the Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)?

  1. NSP2
  2. HBx
  3. HBcAg
  4. HBsAg
  5. LMP1
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements regarding human immunodeficiency virus is false?

  1. p32 is an integrase.
  2. p10 is a protease enzyme that breaks gag precursor.
  3. The reverse transcriptase enzyme is a prominent feature of retroviruses.
  4. Ras gene products are involved in kinase signalling pathways.
  5. Gag gene encodes for the lipid bilayer of the virus.
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

EBV is the herpes virus that is most strongly associated with cancer. Which among the following diseases is/are not caused by EBV?

  1. X-linked MASA syndrome
  2. Hodgkin's lymphoma
  3. B-cell lymphomas
  4. Nasopharyngeal cancer
  5. Burkitt's lymphoma
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A doctor told a couple that their son is a patient of plasmablastic lymphoma which is a rare and aggressive variant of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. Which among the following viruses causes hematologic malignancies in such patients?

  1. Cytomegalovirus
  2. Human herpes virus 5
  3. Human herpes virus 4
  4. Human herpes virus 3
  5. Kaposi's sarcoma herpes virus (HHV-8)
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a virus, the RNA genome covering protein is

  1. G protein
  2. M protein
  3. L protein
  4. N protein
  5. Gag-onc fusion protein
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is the most common form of Severe Combined Immune Deficiencies (SCIDs)?

  1. Interleukin receptor common gamma chain deficiency
  2. IgA deficiency
  3. IRAK-4 deficiency
  4. RAG1/RAG2 deficiency
  5. Di George syndrome
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following blocks the tyrosine kinase signalling in the host cell?

  1. Vpu
  2. LMP-2A
  3. E2
  4. NSP2
  5. Gp41
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is most pertinent to healthy individuals with selective IgA deficiency?

  1. All individuals can be considered to be normal without risk of infections.
  2. They are more likely to develop heart disease than those with normal IgA levels.
  3. They will always have a high risk of HIV infection.
  4. They have a high risk of a recurrent serious bacterial infection.
  5. They have a higher risk of developing an organ specific autoimmune disease or allergies than the general population.
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Vaibhav and his brother are HIV-infected. Which among the following fungi are recognised from the oral cavity of HIV-infected patients?

  1. Candida kefyr
  2. Candida glabrata
  3. Candida famata
  4. Candida dubliniensis
  5. Candida albicans
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

People with weakened immune systems are more prone to be infected by

  1. blastomycosis
  2. histoplasmosis
  3. mucormycosis
  4. pneumocystis pneumonia
  5. sporotrichosis
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An oncovirus is a virus that can cause cancer. Which among the following is the first described oncovirus?

  1. Koala retrovirus
  2. Avian sarcoma leukosis virus
  3. Rous sarcoma virus
  4. Visna virus
  5. Bovine immunodeficiency virus
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In human beings, AIDS and cancer cause immunosuppression. Such immunosuppressed patients are more susceptible to get infected by

  1. Curvularia
  2. Phaeoannellomyces werneckii
  3. Scedosporium prolificans
  4. Sporothrix schenckii
  5. Wangiella dermatitidis
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

APOBE is a family of evolutionary conserved proteins. Which among the following viral factors disrupts the antiviral activity of this human enzyme?

  1. Vif
  2. Nef
  3. Vpr
  4. Rev
  5. Tat
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following clinical features is NOT usually associated with HIV infection?

  1. A glandular fever-like illness
  2. Persistent generalised lymphadenopathy
  3. Gonococcal septicaemia
  4. Slim disease
  5. Presenile dementia
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are a proven route of transmission of HIV?

  1. Swimming pools
  2. Mosquitoes
  3. Shared bathroom facilities
  4. Semen
  5. Bed bugs
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

By which of the following ways can HIV not be contracted?

  1. Sharing needles
  2. Sexual intercourse
  3. Sharing toothbrushes
  4. Breast feeding
  5. Via the placenta
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Most cases of acute leukaemia in children are of which of the following types?

  1. T-cell ALL
  2. Mature B-cell ALL
  3. Hairy cell leukaemia
  4. Pre-B-cell ALL
  5. Histiocytic leukaemia
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A doctor told Mrs. Verma that her newborn is suffering from Severe Combined Immune Deficiency (SCID). Which of the following findings is the most common indicator in an infant with SCID?

  1. Lymphopenia
  2. Severe asthma
  3. Dry skin
  4. Pneumonia
  5. Staphylococcal abscess
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements about IgA deficiency is FALSE?

  1. IgA deficiency is defined as a blood level < 0.07 g/l.
  2. IgA deficiency is the most common of the primary immune deficiencies.
  3. Many patients with IgA deficiency are healthy throughout their lives.
  4. Patients with IgA deficiency may suffer from an increased prevalence of allergies.
  5. There is a defined problem with the class switch mechanisms for IgG in such patients.
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements about complications in AIDS patients is incorrect?

  1. Tuberculosis is a major cause of death in Africa.
  2. Candida infection of the oesophagus is a feature observed in such patients.
  3. After the diagnosis of AIDS is made, the average survival time has been estimated around 10 years.
  4. Malabsorption is common in such patients.
  5. Human herpes virus type 8 (HHV 8) results in malignancy.
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of slow growing blood cancer that affects developing B-lymphocytes. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is commonly associated with which of the following features?

  1. Invariably rapid demise
  2. Slow but progressive course
  3. Overwhelming bleeding
  4. Hepatitis
  5. Thymoma
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Chronic granulomatous disease is a disorder that causes the immune system to malfunction, resulting in a form of immunodeficiency. Which of the following is the primary defect in chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?

  1. Neutrophil production in the bone marrow
  2. Neutrophil chemotaxis
  3. Neutrophil intracellular killing of organisms
  4. Opsonisation
  5. Cytotoxic T-cell activity
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is most pertinent to common variable immune deficiency disorders?

  1. They are always present before the age of 10 years.
  2. They are caused due to a single gene defect on the X chromosome.
  3. They affect 1 in 500 of the population.
  4. Patients are treated by replacement immunoglobulin, intravenously or subcutaneously.
  5. Most patients die from complications of malignancy.
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Epstein-Barr virus was the first virus to be directly associated with human cancer. Epstein-Barr virus is NOT implicated in which of the following conditions?

  1. Infectious mononucleosis
  2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  3. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia
  4. Burkitt's lymphoma
  5. Post-transplantation lymphoproliferative syndrome
Question 59 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is commonly associated with marked secondary antibody deficiency in humans?

  1. Mild protein-energy malnutrition
  2. Multiple myeloma
  3. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL)
  4. HIV infection
  5. Hodgkin's disease
Question 60 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which type of leukaemia is most likely to have skin involvement?

  1. Acute leukaemia
  2. Hairy cell leukaemia
  3. Plasma cell leukaemia
  4. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (common type)
  5. Sezary syndrome
Question 61 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following microorganisms does NOT use antigenic variation as a major means of evading host defences?

  1. HIV
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Influenza A virus
  4. Borrelia recurrentis
  5. Trypanosoma
Question 62 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Bence-Jones protein urine test is used mainly to diagnose and monitor multiple myeloma, a blood cancer. Bence-Jones proteins are

  1. fragments of transferrin
  2. polyclonal free light chains
  3. monoclonal free light chains
  4. beta 2-microglobulins
  5. prostaglandins
Question 63 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) interacts with which of the following cell-surface molecules to gain entry into cells of the immune system?

  1. CD4
  2. CD19
  3. CD40 ligand
  4. CD8
  5. CD25
Question 64 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

IgE levels appear to be a very discriminative marker between patients in late stages of HIV infection. Which of the following types of cells produce IgE?

  1. Mast cells
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
  4. T lymphocytes
  5. Plasma cells
Question 65 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The HIV virus attacks T-helper cells, knocking out the body's ability to defend itself against infections. Helper CD4+ T lymphocytes recognise which of the following types of molecules on dendritic cells?

  1. HLA class I antigen
  2. HLA class III antigen
  3. Processed peptides from antigen
  4. CD8 antigen
  5. Surface immunoglobulin
Question 66 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements relating to anti-TNF monoclonal antibody therapies is FALSE?

  1. The risk of latent TB is assessed routinely in immunosuppressed patients by interferon release assays on whole blood.
  2. Clinical characteristics of TB in the setting of anti-TNF therapy include a preponderance of extra-pulmonary disease and poor granuloma formation on histology.
  3. Therapeutic TNF inhibition is associated with significant risk of reactivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  4. Infliximab is a soluble TNF receptor.
  5. The success of TNF blockade in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) underlines the pivotal proinflammatory role of TNF in this disease.
Question 67 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Many types of human cancer are associated with extensive eosinophilia, either within the tumor itself, or in the peripheral blood, or in both locations. Which of the following cytokines acts as a chemo-attractant for eosinophils?

  1. IL-5
  2. IL-10
  3. IFN-gamma
  4. IL-2
  5. IL-7
Question 68 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following agents is NOT immunosuppressive?

  1. Levamisole
  2. Corticosteroid
  3. Thalidomide
  4. Aspirin
  5. Total lymphoid irradiation
Question 69 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Waldenström's macroglobulinaemia patients often subsequently develop

  1. meningitis
  2. duodenal ulcer
  3. hyperviscosity syndrome
  4. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
  5. multiple myeloma
Question 70 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following drugs is used for the treatment of HIV/AIDS infection?

  1. Artesunate
  2. Zanamivir
  3. Zidovudine
  4. Taxol
  5. Levodopa
Question 71 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following investigations is essential for the diagnosis of all solid B-cell tumors?

  1. Gene rearrangement study
  2. Detection of a thymoma
  3. Bone marrow/lymph node examination
  4. Analysis of urine for protein
  5. X-ray of the skull
Question 72 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

CD4+ cells are dominant cells that are an indispensible part of human immune system. Which among the following are NOT CD4+ cells?

  1. Macrophages
  2. T-cytotoxic cells
  3. T-helper cells
  4. Monocytes
  5. Dendritic cells
Question 73 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A 50 years old Europian has breast cancer. Which of the following genes is most likely to show mutation if genetic testing is done?

  1. BRCA1
  2. BRCA2
  3. PTEN
  4. MIRN21
  5. TMEM49
Question 74 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which immune marker is observable during the window period of HIV infection?

  1. Antigen p17
  2. Antibodies to gp 41
  3. Antibodies to gp 120
  4. p24 antigen
  5. GSK-3
Question 75 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following is/are regarded as the best treatment for HIV infection?

  1. Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
  2. Integrase inhibitors
  3. Protease inhibitors
  4. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  5. Telomerase reverse transcriptase
Question 76 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Pol refers to a gene in retroviruses. The pol gene does NOT encode for

  1. RNA polymerase
  2. integrase
  3. reverse transcriptase
  4. proteases
  5. trimer
Question 77 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following genes activates viral gene expression?

  1. gag
  2. rev
  3. nif
  4. tat
  5. nef
Question 78 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following accessory regulatory proteins of HIV is neccesary for the successful release of virions from infected cells?

  1. env
  2. pol
  3. gag
  4. vpu
  5. tev
Question 79 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following techniques is utilised in detecting viral nucleic acids?

  1. Viral isolation
  2. Western blot
  3. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
  4. ELISA
  5. Measuring HIV-RNA
Question 80 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which among the following stages of AIDS proposed by WHO is the CD4 count less than 350/µl?

  1. Primary HIV infection
  2. Stage I
  3. Stage II
  4. Stage III
Question 81 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

World AIDS Vaccine Day is observed annually on

  1. 1st December
  2. 18th May
  3. 25th April
  4. 5th June
  5. 7th April
Question 82 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements does NOT characterise telomerase reverse transcriptase enzyme?

  1. The hTERT gene has become a main focus for gene therapy involving cancer.
  2. Plasmid DNA sequences can be manufactured using the hTERT promoter.
  3. hTERT immortalises various normal cells in culture.
  4. The hTERT gene, located on chromosome 5, consists of 16 exons and 15 introns spanning 35 kb.
  5. Telomere deficiency is associated with cancers and tumor formation.
Question 83 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is not a rapid test for the diagnosis of HIV infection in humans?

  1. HIV spot and comb test
  2. Western blotting
  3. Particle agglutination test
  4. Dot blot assay
  5. Wet blot assay
Question 84 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding cancer in humans?

  1. A tumor in a cell is not considered as malignant until it spreads to other parts of the body forming secondary tumors.
  2. A cancer is caused by agglomeration of a small number of mutations, each of which boosts the cell with a growth advantage.
  3. A cancer is a genetic disease frequently being inherited.
  4. Cancer is regarded a disease of old age.
  5. Cancers are a large family of diseases.
Question 85 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A doctor explained to a couple that their son is suffering from a cancer which derives from epithelial cells of the body. Which among the following cancers must the doctor be referring to?

  1. Blastoma
  2. Germ cell tumor
  3. Lymphoma and leukemia
  4. Sarcoma
  5. Carcinoma
Question 86 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements characterises an oncogene?

  1. It codes for a cell cycle control protein in a cell.
  2. It codes for a protein which restricts the cell from apoptosis.
  3. It codes for a mutated form of a protein which creates fractions of a signal transduction pathway.
  4. Many cancer drugs target the proteins encoded by oncogenes.
  5. It is a predominantly expressed mutation providing a cell a growth or survival advantage.
Question 87 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The protein coded by a tumor suppressor gene in humans is

  1. a protein which controls progression through the cell cycle
  2. a protein which helps prevent apoptosis
  3. a protein which codes for a DNA repair enzyme
  4. a protein which forms fractions of a growth factor signalling pathway
  5. a protein which acts by opposing the action of PI3K
Question 88 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following oncogenes forms the death-inducing signalling complex in humans?

  1. pVHL
  2. APC
  3. Fas
  4. YPEL3
  5. ST14
Question 89 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Sezary syndrome patients often subsequently develop

  1. meningitis
  2. duodenal ulcer
  3. gangrene of the toes
  4. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
  5. multiple myeloma
Question 90 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements regarding benign tumors is false?

  1. Benign tumors cause mass effect.
  2. A benign tumor metastasises quickly.
  3. Tumors of endocrine tissues may overproduce certain hormones.
  4. Benign skin tumors are usually surgically ressected.
  5. Benign tumors are mostly well-differentiated.
Question 91 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which of the following tumors does the architecture of the tissue get cluttered?

  1. Hamartomas
  2. Lipoma
  3. Adenomas
  4. Chondroma
  5. Teratomas
Question 92 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A heterogeneous group of high-grade carcinomas is referred to as

  1. small cell carcinoma
  2. large cell carcinoma
  3. anaplastic carcinoma
  4. squamous cell carcinoma
  5. adenosquamous carcinoma
Question 93 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements does NOT characterise HIV viral antigen?

  1. Serum antibodies form the first layer of protection of the host from viral infection.
  2. Recombinant viral proteins are expressed in bacteria, yeast, mammalian cells, etc.
  3. Recombinant viral protein usually contains a fusion protein.
  4. Recombinant viral antigens contain part of viral sequence.
  5. ELISAs provide a valuable tool in the detection and diagnosis of viral infection.
Question 94 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the cause of AIDS, belongs to the category of

  1. single-stranded DNA (ssDNA)
  2. reverse-transcribing viruses
  3. double-stranded RNA (dsRNA)
  4. negative sense single-stranded RNA (ssRNA-)
  5. positive sense single-stranded RNA (ssRNA+)
Question 95 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Response of non-small cell lung cancer to gefitinib is predicted by mutation in

  1. EGF receptor gene
  2. ABL1 proto-oncogene
  3. Myc oncogene
  4. PAG1
  5. Cbl
Question 96 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The whole genome of which of the following viruses is translated in a polyprotein?

  1. Ebolavirus
  2. Flavivirus
  3. Tobacco mosaic virus
  4. T4 bacteriophage
  5. Human immunodeficiency virus
Question 97 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A division of the circular single stranded viruses has been proposed for easy and convenient study. Which among the following types of genomes is characterised by small circular DNA genome?

  1. Type I genomes
  2. Type II genomes
  3. Type III genomes
  4. Type IV genomes
  5. Type V genomes
Question 98 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Oncogenesis is the process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells. Which among the following viruses may have a hit and run mechanism of oncogenesis?

  1. Papillomavirus
  2. Polyomavirus
  3. Simian virus 40
  4. Adenovirus
  5. Herpesvirus
Question 99 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following scientists discovered the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and developed the HIV blood test?

  1. Benjamin Rubin
  2. Jonas Edward Salk
  3. Gallo
  4. Edward Jenner
  5. Wortley Montague
Question 100 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Protective antibodies formed in the body against viral agents are known as

  1. non-specific antibodies
  2. natural killers
  3. toxoids
  4. neutralising antibodies
  5. autoantibodies