To answer this question, we need to understand the Test Documentation Standard and the contents of a Test Plan document.

The Test Documentation Standard provides guidelines for creating test documentation, including the Test Plan document. The Test Plan document outlines the approach, scope, objectives, and resources for a testing project. It typically includes the following information:

A. What is not to be tested - This is commonly included in the Test Plan document. It specifies the areas or functionalities that will not be tested during the project.

B. Test environments - This is commonly included in the Test Plan document. It describes the hardware, software, and network configurations required for testing.

C. Quality plans - This option is the correct answer. Quality plans are not typically included in the Test Plan document. Quality plans outline the overall quality goals, processes, and strategies for a project, but they are not specific to testing.

D. Schedules and deadlines - This is commonly included in the Test Plan document. It provides a timeline for the testing activities, including milestones, deadlines, and resource allocation.

Based on the information above, the correct answer is C) Quality plans. This option is not typically included in the Test Plan document.

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To answer this question, you need to understand the concept of performance testing. Performance testing is a type of testing that is conducted to evaluate the performance and characteristics of a system under specific conditions. It involves measuring and assessing various aspects of the system's performance, such as response time, transaction rates, and user load.

Let's go through each option to understand why it is correct or incorrect:

Option A) Measuring response time - This option is part of performance testing. Measuring response time helps in evaluating the speed and efficiency of the system's response to user actions.

Option B) Measuring transaction rates - This option is also part of performance testing. Measuring transaction rates helps in assessing the system's ability to handle a certain number of transactions within a given time frame.

Option C) Recovery testing - This option is not part of performance testing. Recovery testing is a type of testing that focuses on testing the system's ability to recover from failures, such as crashes or hardware malfunctions.

Option D) Simulating many users - This option is part of performance testing. Simulating many users helps in evaluating the system's performance under heavy user loads and determines how well it can handle concurrent user interactions.

The correct answer is C) Recovery testing. This option is not part of performance testing as it focuses on a different aspect of system testing. Performance testing primarily involves measuring response time, transaction rates, and simulating many users.

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To answer this question, you need to understand different types of testing and their purposes.

Option A) Regression testing - Regression testing is performed to ensure that changes or updates to the software do not introduce new defects or impact existing functionality. It is not directly related to supplementing rigorous testing.

Option B) Integration testing - Integration testing is done to test the interaction between different components or modules of the software. It focuses on identifying defects that arise due to the integration of these components. It is not specifically done to supplement rigorous testing.

Option C) Error Guessing - Error guessing is a technique where testers use their experience and intuition to identify potential defects without specific test cases. It is a type of black-box testing and can be used to supplement rigorous testing by exploring areas that may not have been covered in the planned test cases.

Option D) System testing - System testing is performed to evaluate the complete and integrated system against the specified requirements. It is not specifically done to supplement rigorous testing.

The correct answer is option C) Error Guessing. This option is correct because error guessing can be used as an additional technique to supplement rigorous testing by allowing testers to use their experience and intuition to identify potential defects.

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To determine the smallest number of test cases required to provide 100% branch coverage, we need to analyze the given code and identify the different branches or decision points.

In the given code, there are two decision points:

1. The if statement: if (x > y)
2. The while loop condition: while (x > y)

To achieve 100% branch coverage, we need to test all possible outcomes of these decision points.

Let's analyze the code and identify the possible outcomes:

1. The if statement:

   • If (x > y) is true: x = x + 1
   • If (x > y) is false: y = y + 1

2. The while loop condition:

   • If (x > y) is true: continue looping and execute the statements within the loop
   • If (x > y) is false: exit the loop

Based on the above analysis, we can determine the minimum number of test cases required:

• Test case 1: x > y is true, and x > y is true in the while loop condition (execute the statements within the loop)
• Test case 2: x > y is false, and x > y is true in the while loop condition (exit the loop)

Therefore, the smallest number of test cases required to provide 100% branch coverage is 2.

Let's go through each option to understand why it is correct or incorrect:

Option A) 1 - This option is incorrect because we need to test both outcomes of the if statement and the while loop condition. Option B) 2 - This option is correct because it covers both outcomes of the if statement and the while loop condition. Option C) 3 - This option is incorrect because we do not need to test three different cases. Option D) 4 - This option is incorrect because we do not need to test four different cases.

The correct answer is B) 2. This option is correct because it covers all possible outcomes of the decision points in the code.

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To determine the equivalence class, we need to consider the passing marks and the criteria for distinction.

Given that the passing marks are 25 (or 61% of the total marks), any score below 25 will result in a failing grade. Therefore, we can eliminate options A and B since they include values below 25.

For distinction, a candidate should score 80% or above. Considering that the total number of questions is 40, we can calculate the minimum number of correct answers required for distinction:

Minimum number of correct answers for distinction = 80% of 40 = 0.8 * 40 = 32

Therefore, any score less than 32 will not meet the criteria for distinction. Based on this, we can eliminate option C.

Now, we are left with option D, which includes values 32, 37, and 40. These values fall within the range of passing marks and also meet the criteria for distinction. Hence, the correct answer is option D.

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