Life Sciences- XL (GATE) 2011

XL- Life Sciences (2011)

125 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses the relation in the original pair:
Gladiator : Arena

  1. Dancer: Stage
  2. Commuter: Train
  3. Teacher: Classroom
  4. Lawyer: Courtroom
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence:
Under ethical guidelines recently adopted by the Indian Medical Association, human genes are to be manipulated only to correct diseases for which treatments are unsatisfactory.

  1. similar
  2. most
  3. uncommon
  4. available
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:
Frequency

  1. periodicity
  2. rarity
  3. gradualness
  4. persistency
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence:
It was her view that the country’s problems had been by foreign technocrats, so that to invite them to come back would be counter-productive.

  1. identified
  2. ascertained
  3. exacerbated
  4. analysed
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

There are two candidates P and Q in an election. During the campaign, 40% of the voters promised to vote for P, and rest for Q. However, on the day of election, 15% of the voters went back on their promise to vote for P and instead voted for Q. 25% of the voters went back on their promise to vote for Q and instead voted for P. Suppose, P lost by 2 votes, what was the total number of voters?

  1. 100
  2. 110
  3. 90
  4. 95
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The horse has played a little known but very important role in the field of medicine. Horses were injected with toxins of diseases until their blood built up immunities. Then a serum was made from their blood. Serums to fight with diphtheria and tetanus were developed this way.
It can be inferred from the passage, that horses were

  1. given immunity to diseases
  2. generally quite immune to diseases
  3. given medicines to fight toxins
  4. given diphtheria and tetanus serums
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The sum of n terms of the series 4 + 44 + 444 +.... is

  1. (4/81) [10n+1 - 9n - 1]
  2. (4/81) [10n-1 - 9n - 1]
  3. (4/81) [10n+1 - 9n - 10]
  4. (4/81) [10n - 9n - 10]
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Given that fry) = |y| / y, and q is any non-zero real number, the value of |f(q) – f(– q)| is

  1. 0
  2. –1
  3. 1
  4. 2
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Three friends, R, S and T shared toffee from a bowl. R took 1/3rd of the toffees, but returned four to the bowl. S took 1/4th of what was left but returned three toffees to the bowl. T took half of the remainder but returned two back into the bowl. If the bowl had 17 toffees left, how many toffees were originally there in the bowl?

  1. 38
  2. 31
  3. 48
  4. 41
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The fuel consumed by a motorcycle during a journey while traveling at various speeds is indicated in the graph below.

The distances covered during four laps of the journey are listed in the table below.

Lap Distance (kilometers) Average speed (kilometers per hour)
P 15 15
Q 75 45
R 40 75
S 10 10

From the given data, we can conclude that the fuel consumed per kilometer was least during the lap

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Electrophile among the following is

  1. NH3
  2. SO3
  3. NO2
  4. CH $\times$ C
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The major product for the following reaction is

Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Trouton's rule is obeyed by

  1. hydrogen
  2. methanol
  3. benzene
  4. acetic acid
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following compounds is known as silanes?

  1. Silicon hydrides
  2. Silicon halides
  3. Silicon hydroxides
  4. Silicon oxides
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The shape of PCI5 is

  1. tetrahedral
  2. square planar
  3. trigonal bipyramidal
  4. square pyramidal
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The correct order of acidity is

  1. C6H5COOH < CH3COOH < C6H5OH < C2H5OH
  2. CH3COOH < C6H5COOH < C2H5OH < C6H5OH
  3. C2H5OH < C6H5OH < C6H5COOH < CH3COOH
  4. C2H5OH < C6H5OH < CH3COOH < C6H5COOH
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following equilibrium
SO2 (g) + ½ O2 (g) ⇌ SO3 (g), $\Delta$H = –23.5 kCal mo1–1
The formation of SO3 is favoured by

  1. compression and decreasing the temperature
  2. compression and increasing the temperature
  3. expansion and increasing the temperature
  4. expansion and decreasing the temperature
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A molecular electronic excited state has a life time of 10–9 s, the uncertainty in measuring the frequency (Hz) of the electronic transition is approximately

  1. $\frac{h}{4\pi} \times 10^ 9 $
  2. $\frac{h}{4\pi} \times 10^ {-9} $
  3. $\frac{1}{4\pi} \times 10^ {-9} $
  4. $\frac{1}{4\pi} \times 10^ 9 $
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to the molecular orbital theory, bond order for H2+ species is

  1. 0.5
  2. 1.0
  3. 1.5
  4. 2.0
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to crystal field theory, the electronic configuration of [Ti(H2O)6]3+ in the ground state is

  1. $e^1 t_2^0 $
  2. ${t_{2g}}^0 {e_g}^1$
  3. $e^0{t_2}^1$
  4. ${t_{2g}}^1 {e_g}^0$
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The ions with lowest and highest radii among O2-, F-, Na+ and Mg2+ are respectively,

  1. Mg2+ and O2-
  2. O2- and F-
  3. O2- and Mg2+
  4. Na+ and Mg2+
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: The solubility products of FeS, ZnS, CuS and HgS are 1.0 $\times$ 4.5 $\times$ 10–24, 4.0 $\times$ 10–38 and 3.0 $\times$ 10–53 respectively.

H2S is passed through an aqueous solution containing all the four metal ions. The metal ion that precipitates first is

  1. Fe2+
  2. Zn2+
  3. Cu2+
  4. Hg2+
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: The solubility products of FeS, ZnS, CuS and HgS are 1.0 $\times$ 4.5 $\times$ 10–24, 4.0 $\times$ 10–38 and 3.0 $\times$ 10–53 respectively.

The concentration of S2–, at which FeS begins to precipitate from the mixture having 0.1 M Fe2+ is

  1. 1.0 $\times$ 10–17 M
  2. 1.0 $\times$ 10–18 M
  3. 10 $\times$ 10–19 M
  4. 1.0 $\times$ 10–29 M
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: Consider the reaction

The above reaction is an example of

  1. addition reaction
  2. bimolecular elimination reaction (E2)
  3. unimolecular substitution reaction (SN1)
  4. bimolecular substitution reaction (SN2)
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: Consider the reaction:

If the concentration of KOH in the reaction mixture is doubled, the rate of the reaction will be

  1. decreased to one-half
  2. the same
  3. increased by two-times
  4. increased by four-times
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following DOES NOT inhibit protein biosynthesis?

  1. Puromycin
  2. Chioramphenicol
  3. Cycloheximide
  4. Oligomycin
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The activation of the complement components occurs via three distinct pathways. Which of the following component (s) is specific to the ‘Alternate Pathway’?

  1. Factor B and D
  2. Mannose binding protein
  3. Clqr2s2
  4. C2
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following enzymes fixes CO2 into organic form?

  1. Ribulose 5-phosphate kinase
  2. Ribulose 1, 5-bisphosphate carboxylase
  3. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
  4. Carbonic anhydrase
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Cytochrome C is normally found in the inner mitochondrial membrane. It is released into the cytoplasm during

  1. Apoptosis
  2. Necrosis
  3. Cell differentiation
  4. Cell proliferation
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are the two enzymes commonly utilized as reagents in ELISA, because these enzymes

  1. are colored proteins
  2. are very small
  3. have high turnover number
  4. bind to ELISA plates
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The polarity of water molecule is due to

  1. its tetrahedral structure
  2. bonding electrons being attracted more to oxygen
  3. bonding electrons being attracted more to hydrogen
  4. its weak electrolytic property
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Cyanide poisoning is due to its direct inhibition of

  1. Electron transport chain
  2. Fatty acid biosynthesis
  3. Fatty acid oxidation
  4. Nucleic acid biosynthesis
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In humans, the largest energy reserve is

  1. liver glycogen
  2. muscle glycogen
  3. blood glucose
  4. adipose tissue triacylglycerol
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A mixture of four proteins of pls 11, 7, 5 and 3 are loaded on DEAE anion-exchange column equilibrated with low ionic strength buffer of pH 8. Which of the four proteins would be expected to be retained on the column?

  1. Protein with pI 11 but not the others
  2. Proteins with pl 11 and 7 but not 5 and 3
  3. Proteins with pl 7, 5 and 3
  4. Protein with pl 7 but not the others
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Valinomycin, a cyclic peptide antibiotic, facilitates the transport of which one of the following ions?

  1. K+
  2. Ca2+
  3. Na+
  4. H+
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match P, Q, R and S with the appropriate numbers 1 to 6 on the right

 
(P) Basophils (1) Perform
(Q) T cells 2) Phagocytosis
(R) B cells (3) Albumin
(S) Neutrophils (4) Macroglobulin
(5) Fc receptors for IgE
(6) Plasma cells
  1. P - 5, Q - 1, R - 6, S - 2
  2. P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3, S - 4
  3. P - 3, Q - 4, R - 5, S - 1
  4. P - 2, Q - 6, R - 1, S - 3
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Two purified DNA samples A and B contain equal number of base pairs. Each of these DNA samples has one site each for EcoRI and BamHI restriction enzymes. Complete digestion with both the enzymes yielded 3 DNA bands and 2 DNA bands respectively for A and B upon electrophoresis of the digestion products. Which one of the following explains the observation?

  1. A is circular DNA and B is linear.
  2. B is circular DNA and A is linear.
  3. A is circular DNA and B could be linear or circular.
  4. B is circular DNA and A could be linear or circular.
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In the following enzyme catalyzed reaction which follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics


Km is equal to

  1. k–1/(k1.k2)
  2. (k1. k2)/k–1
  3. k1/(k2 + k–1)
  4. (k2 + k–1)/k1
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the items in Group I with those in Group II.

Group I Group II
(P) Progesterone (1) Peptide
(Q) Dopamine (2) Fatty acid
(R) Vasopressin (3) Carbohydrate
(S) Prostaglandin (4) Catecholamine
(5) Eicosanoid
(6) Steroid
  1. P - 3, Q - 4, R - 1, S - 2
  2. P - 6, Q - 4, R - 1, S - 5
  3. P - 3, Q - 5, R - 4, S - 1
  4. P - 6, Q - 5, R - 1, S - 4
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Three samples of antibodies were electrophoresed under denaturing and reducing conditions on a 15% acrylamide gel, followed by staining with Coomassie blue dye. Samples 1, 2 and 3 showed two, three and four stainable bands respectively. Which one of the following conclusions can be made from these observations?

  1. Sample 1 is IgG, 2 is IgA and 3 is lgM
  2. Sample 1 is IgA, 2 is 1gM and 3 is IgG
  3. Sample 1 is IgG, 2 is 1gM and 3 is IgA
  4. Sample 1 is IgA, 2 is IgG and 3 is 1gM
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Four identical PCR reactions were carried out in tubes named I, II, III and IV. Besides the usual mix of dNTPs, each of the tubes respectively contained $\gamma$-32P dATP, $\beta$-32P dATP, $\alpha$-32P dATP and $\alpha$-32P rNTP. Which one of the tubes will have radiolabeled PCR product?

  1. Tube I
  2. Tube II
  3. Tube III
  4. Tube IV
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the following:

 
Group I Group II
(P) Polynucleotide kinase (1) ATPase
(Q) Fluoride (2) GTPase
(R) Ras (3) Transketolase
(S) lac operon (4) Enolase
(5) 5’ end of DNA
(6) 3 end of DNA
(7) Only positive regulation
(8) Positive and negative regulation
  1. P - 5, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 8
  2. P - 6, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 7
  3. P - 4, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 6
  4. P - 1, Q - 7, R - 5, S - 3
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Collagen, $\alpha$-keratin and tropomyosin have common structural features. They are
(P) disulfide bridges to neighboring proteins.
(Q) repeating sequences of amino acids
(R) a high 3-sheet content
(S) superhelical coiling

  1. P, Q
  2. Q, R
  3. Q, S
  4. P, R
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the following:

Group I Group II
(P) Tyrosine hydroxylation (1) Thyroxine
(Q) Tyrosine iodination (2) T cell Receptor
(R) Tyrosine phosphorylation (3) DOPA
(S) Tyrosine oxidation (4) Estradiol receptor
(5) Epinephrine
(6) Melanin
(7) Endorphin
(8) Serotonin
  1. P - 1, Q - 6, R - 5, S - 4
  2. P - 5, Q - 7, R - 4, S - 8
  3. P - 2, Q - 5, R - 3, S - 4
  4. P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 6
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Scatchard analysis of ligand-receptor interaction yielded the graph shown below. The affinity of the ligand-receptor interaction can be obtained from

  1. Y intercept
  2. X intercept
  3. Slope of the line
  4. Product of X intercept and Y intercept
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The stalk with which the ovule remains attached to the placenta is called

  1. Micropyle
  2. Chalaza
  3. Funiculus
  4. Hilum
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The diploid chromosome number of an organism is 2n = 14. What would be the expected chromosome numbers in a nullisomic?

  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 15
  4. 16
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The mutagen ethidium bromide acts as a

  1. Deaminating agent
  2. Intercalating agent
  3. Alkylating agent
  4. Base analogue
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

During photorespiration the reactive oxygen species, H2O2 is produced in

  1. Glyoxysome
  2. Lysosome
  3. Peroxisome
  4. Dictyosome
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

One of the defense mechanisms adopted by plants for detoxification of heavy metals is the synthesis of

  1. Phytochelatin
  2. Calmodulin
  3. Tubulin
  4. Systemin
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which one of the following phases of cell cycle the drug colchicine exerts its effect?

  1. G1
  2. G2
  3. S
  4. M
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The transition of water molecule from liquid to glassy state during cryopreservation is termed as

  1. Vitrification
  2. Hyperhydricity
  3. Cryoprotectant
  4. Habituation
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The DNA content of a nucleus can be measured by

  1. ESR Spectroscopy
  2. FTIR Spectroscopy
  3. Flow Cytometry
  4. X-Ray Crystallography
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Retrograde signaling involves communication of

  1. nucleus to the chioroplast
  2. endoplasmic reticulum to the nucleus
  3. nucleus to the mitochondria
  4. chioroplast to the nucleus
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A photoautotrophic micropropagation system can be established by increasing the

  1. sucrose concentration in the culture medium
  2. CO2 concentration in the culture medium
  3. agar concentration in the culture medium
  4. NH4+ concentration in the culture medium
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements in photosynthesis are CORRECT?
P. The absorption maxima for photosystem I (PS I) and PS II are 680 nm and 700 nm, respectively.
Q. Photosynthetic reaction centre contains 300 chlorophyll molecules and the release of one molecule of oxygen requires a minimum of 8 photons.
R. The non-photochemical quenching of excitation energy is enhanced by the presence of zeaxanthin.
S. The photochemical splitting of water occurs in PS I.

  1. P, Q
  2. R, S
  3. P, S
  4. Q, R
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements are TRUE on DNA delivery methods during plant transformation?
P. Single stranded nicks are made in T-DNA border repeat by the VirD1, VirD2 and VirD3 protein complex.
Q. virA gene products form the export apptratus on the membrane for the transfer of T-DNA.
R. Gold/Tungsten particles are used as microprojectiles in biolistic method.
S. Acceleration of DNA-coated microprojectiles is carried out with compressed CO2.

  1. P, S
  2. R, S
  3. P, R
  4. Q, S
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the following plant secondary compounds with their uses and source plants.

Compounds Uses Plant species
P. Guggulusterol 1. Anti-hypertensive i. Lithospermum erythrorhizon
Q. Shikonin 2. Anti-rheumatic ii. Catharanthus roseus
R. Ajmalicine 3. Dye iii. Glycyrrhiza glabra
S. Glycyrrhizin 4. Sweetner iv. Commiphora wightii
5. Anti-tumor v. Swertia chirata
6. Anti-plaque vi. Coptisjaponica
  1. P - 2 - iv, Q - 3 - i, R - 1 - ii, S - 4 - iii
  2. P - 3 - iv, Q - 1 - i, R - 5 - ii, S - 6 - iii
  3. P - 4 - iv, Q - 3 - i, R - 1 - v, S - 2 - vi
  4. P - 4 - iii, Q - 2 - ii, R - 5 - i, S - 6 - iv
Question 59 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the gene of interest for various aspects of crop improvement.

 
Gene insert Aspects of crop improvement
P. bar 1. Tolerance to heavy metals
Q. vip3A 2. Nutritional improvement with increased vitamin A
R. /3-Icy 3. Insect resistance
S. gsh-Il 4. Herbicide resistance
5. Delayed ripening
6. Resistance to fungal infection
  1. P - 4, Q - 3, R - 5, S - 6
  2. P - 4, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 1
  3. P - 2, Q - 4, R - 5, S - 3
  4. P - 4, Q - 2, R - 6, S - 1
Question 60 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the plants with their seed storage proteins.

 
Plant Protein
P. Rape seed 1. Kafirin
Q. Pea 2. Vicillin
R. Sorghum 3. Gliadin
S. Wheat 4. Napin
5. Zein
6. Patatin
  1. P - 4, Q - 3, R - 5, S - 2
  2. P - 2, Q - 3, R - 6, S - 1
  3. P - 4, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 3
  4. P - 3, Q - 2, R - 4, S - 5
Question 61 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the name of the disease with the causal organism.

Disease Causal organism
P. False smut of rice 1. Plasmopara viticola
Q. Ring rot of potato 2. Collectotrichum falcatum
R. Red rot of sugarcane 3. Corynebacterium sepidonicum
S. Downy mildew of grape 4. Ustilaginoidea virens
5. Erwinia amylovora
6. Synchytrium endobioticum
  1. P - 1, Q - 5, R - 2, S - 4
  2. P - 4, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 1
  3. P - 6, Q - 2, R - 4, S - 1
  4. P - 5, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 4
Question 62 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Identify the CORRECT statements for phylogenetic systems of classification.
P. The most popular phylogenetic systems of classification is that of George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker and was published in ‘Genera Plantarum’.
Q. A true phylogenetic system of classification was proposed by Adlof Engler and was published in ‘Die Naturlichen Pflanzenfan-ijljen’.
R. The phylogenetic system of classification proposed by John Hutchinson was appeared in ‘The Families of Flowering Plants’.
S. The origin of dicot from primitive monocot was proposed by Arthur Cronquist in his book ‘Systema Naturae’.

  1. Q, R
  2. P, Q
  3. R, S
  4. P, S
Question 63 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements are TRUE for the plastid genomes?
P. Plastid genome is circular in nature with genome size of 120-160 kb.
Q. The plastid ribosomes are with sedimentation coefficient of 80 S.
R. The gene for the small subunit of ribulose bisphospate carboxylase (RubisCO) is located in the plastid.
S. rRNAs in the plastid genome are arranged in one transcription unit.

  1. P, Q
  2. Q, S
  3. R, S
  4. P, S
Question 64 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Identify the CORRECT statements.
P. Specialized parenchymatous cells with tannins and crystals of calcium oxalate are termed as sciereids.
Q. The sieve elements of angiosperms are surrounded by companion cells and are essential component of phloem loading.
R. The exudation of water by guttation occurs through trichomes.
S. The bulliform cells control the unrolling and hygroscopic movement of grass leaves.

  1. P, Q
  2. P, R
  3. Q, S
  4. P, S
Question 65 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT on ecological point of view?
P. Primary succession involving xerosere is initiated in a wet habitat.
Q. Halones commonly found in electronic equipment are one of the active force destroying the protective ozone layer in the stratosphere.
R. Sympatric speciation occurs when the new species evolves in geographic isolation from the parent species.
S. $\alpha$-Diversity is the diversity of species within a habitat or community.

  1. P, Q
  2. P, R
  3. Q, R
  4. Q, S
Question 66 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Quinolones inhibit bacterial growth by targeting

  1. DNA replication
  2. mRNA translation
  3. RNA polymerase
  4. active transport of nutrients into the cell
Question 67 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

To select for spontaneously arising histidine auxotrophs in a population, you would use a medium containing

  1. Histidine and penicillin
  2. Penicillin but no histidine
  3. Histidine and lysozyme
  4. Lysozyme but no histidine
Question 68 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following statements is NOT associated with contributions of Louis Pasteur?

  1. Anthrax is caused by anthrax bacillus.
  2. Bacteria causing food spoilage come from air.
  3. The disease causing organism must be isolated in pure culture.
  4. Bacteria cause the wine disease.
Question 69 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The active transport of solute in the cell is characterized by

  1. its uptake along the concentration gradient utilizing energy
  2. requirement of a carrier to support transport along the concentration gradient
  3. chemical modification of the solute during its uptake
  4. its uptake against the concentration gradient
Question 70 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Catabolite repression allows cells to save energy by

  1. inactivating catabolic enzymes
  2. inhibiting synthesis of total RNA
  3. regulating expression of genes required for utilization of less-efficient metabolites
  4. inhibiting translation of mRNAs encoding catabolic enzymes
Question 71 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A newly emerged variant of Influenza virus can be selectively propagated from the mixed population by addition of

  1. Gangcyclovir
  2. Tamiflu
  3. Interferon gamma
  4. Neutralizing antibody
Question 72 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The synthesis of an immunoglobulin in either a secretory or membrane bound form is governed by

  1. allelic exclusion
  2. class switching
  3. differential RNA processing
  4. affinity maturation
Question 73 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The cis-trans test can determine whether a gene codes for

  1. an activator or a repressor
  2. an RNA or a protein
  3. a protein with the same or different amino acids
  4. a diffusible or non-diffusible product
Question 74 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are expected to be the abundant inhabitants of a nitrate and sulfate rich soil naturally depleted for oxygen?

  1. Pseudomonas and Azotobacter
  2. Pseudomonas and Desulfovibrio
  3. Azotobacter and Thiobacillus
  4. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
Question 75 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following immersion oils would you use to get the best resolution in a light microscope (with 100 X objective)?

  1. an oil with refractive index of 1.6
  2. an oil with refractive index of 1.5
  3. an oil with refractive index of 1.4
  4. an oil with refractive index of 1.3
Question 76 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Four Hfr strains of E. coli were generated from the same F strain. The Hfr strains donated markers in the following order
Straini: DQWMT; Strain 2: AXPTM; Strain 3: BNCAX; Strain 4: BDQWM
The order of the markers in the original F+ strain is

  1. DQWMTPXACNB
  2. AXPTMDQWBNC
  3. BNCAXPTMDQW
  4. BDQWMNCAXPT
Question 77 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following forms of the same DNA molecule would bind maximum ethidium bromide?

  1. Negatively supercoiled
  2. Covalently closed relaxed circle
  3. Linear
  4. Positively supercoiled
Question 78 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An actively growing culture of E. coli divides in about 20 mm. Under laboratory conditions, time taken to replicate the entire genome of this bacterium would be about

  1. 20 min
  2. 40 min
  3. 10 min
  4. 18 min
Question 79 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the statements about Coiynebacterium diphtheriae biology is NOT CORRECT?

  1. All strains of C. diphtheriae are producers of diphtheria toxin
  2. Diphtheria toxin production can be minimized by high concentration of iron in the medium
  3. Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis
  4. Diphtheria toxin is an A-B toxin secreted as a polypeptide of 62 kDa
Question 80 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the names of investigators in Group 1 with their contributions in Group 2.

</b

Group 1 Group 2
P. Joseph Lister 1. Role of phagocytosis in infection
Q. John Needham 2. Disproved spontaneous generation
R. Elie Metchnikoff 3. Proved Spontaneous generation
S. Lazaro Spallanzani 4. Use of agar as solidifying agent
5. Use of carbolic acid as disinfectant
  1. P - 5, Q - 3, R - 4, S - 1
  2. P - 5, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 2
  3. P - 4, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 5
  4. P - 3, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 4
Question 81 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

During replication of the F. coli chromosome, Okazaki fragments are produced from

  1. only one of the strands of the circular genome
  2. both the strands of the circular genome
  3. one of the strands in one generation and the other strand in the next generation
  4. both the strands of the circular genome provided that the heavy nitrogen (15N) is present in the medium
Question 82 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A new isolate of a facultative anaerobe utilizes either oxygen or pyruvate as terminal electron acceptor. This bacterium was grown either anaerobically with glucose as sole carbon source; or aerobically with lactose as the sole carbon source. Net increase in ATP production (per mole of the carbon source) during the aerobic growth would be

  1. 2 - fold
  2. 4 - fold
  3. 19 - fold
  4. 38 - fold
Question 83 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Based on their properties, match the “Genera” in Group 1 with those in Group 2

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Group 1 Group 2
P. Bacillus 1. Sarcina
Q. Neisseria 2. Azotobacter
R. Rhizobiurn 3. Hyphomicrobium
S. Caulobacter 4. Clostridium
  1. P - 4, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 3
  2. P - 4, Q - 1, R - 3, S - 2
  3. P - 2, Q - 4, R - 1, S - 3
  4. P - 1, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 3
Question 84 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An actively growing culture (20 ml) of E. coli (1 $\times$ 105 per ml) was mixed with a total of 100 T4 phage particles, grown further for 40 min and mixed with a few drops of chloroform. Under the conditions used, the generation time of F. coli is 30 min, the infection cycle of phage T4 is 20 min, and the burst size is 100. Assuming that each infection was a successful one, how many plaque forming units would you expect at the end of the experiment?

  1. 104
  2. 103
  3. 105
  4. 106
Question 85 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the pair of organisms in Group 1 with their characteristic interactions in Group 2

Group 1 Group 2
P. Photoblepharon palpebratus and Vibriofischeri 1. Mutualism
Q. Pseudomonas and Bdellovibrio 2. Symbiosis
R. Aspergillus and Pseudomonas 3. Antagonism
S. Thiobacillusferrooxidans and Beijerinckia lacticogenes 4. Parasitism
  1. P - 2, Q - 4, R - 3, S - 1
  2. P - 2, Q - 3, R - 4, S - 1
  3. P - 4, Q - 2, R - 3, S - 1
  4. P - 2, Q - 4, R - 1, S - 3
Question 86 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following is an example of eumetazoans?

  1. Dictyostelium
  2. Hydra
  3. Sponges
  4. Volvox
Question 87 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following is characteristic of deuterostomes?

  1. Radially symmetric body
  2. Bilaterally symmetric body
  3. Presence of well-defined digestive system
  4. Formation of anus from blastopore
Question 88 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Extraembryonic tissues are derived from which one of the following?

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Endoderm
  3. Trophoectoderm
  4. Mesoderm
Question 89 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following type of immune cells is responsible for graft rejection?

  1. B cells
  2. T cells
  3. Macrophages
  4. Eosinophils
Question 90 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a main symptom of infection by Wuchereria bancrofti?

  1. Swelling of limbs
  2. Skin rashes
  3. Blindness
  4. Brain cyst
Question 91 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In insect's tracheal system, the transport of oxygen to the target tissue is done by

  1. fine branches of air tubes extending to almost every cell
  2. a liquid that fills the tracheal tube
  3. a specialized set of cells that produce myoglobin
  4. a specialized pigment
Question 92 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following examples represents an adaptation or a physiological activity that DOES NOT minimize the loss of body temperature of animals?

  1. Feathers or fur
  2. Fat layers in the adipose tissue
  3. Shivering
  4. Vasodilation
Question 93 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following hormones is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?

  1. Melatonin - biological rhythm
  2. Glucagon - increases blood glucose levels
  3. Prolactin - stimulates milk secretion
  4. Calcitonin - increases blood calcium level
Question 94 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The term innate behavior refers to an animal behavior

  1. that is triggered by an environmental change
  2. that is taught by the parent
  3. that is developmentally fixed
  4. that an organism learns on its own by “a hit-and trial” approach
Question 95 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is TRUE about Kreb's cycle?

  1. Kreb's cycle generates NADPH
  2. The enzymes of Kreb's cycle reside in the inter-membrane space of a mitochondria
  3. It produces ATP, the energy currency of a cell
  4. None of the above
Question 96 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A genetic experiment was performed to map the gene (s) for eye colour in a newly-discovered moth species. Sex determination in this moth species: XY — male and XX — female. When blue-eyed males were mated to green-eyed females, all of both male and female progeny had green eyes. When these progeny were mated among themselves, about half of the males of the resulting second generation had blue eyes; however, all females were green-eyed. Which one of the following is consistent with the above data?

  1. Multiple genes control eye colour in this moth species.
  2. Gene(s) for eye colour is located on the X chromosome.
  3. Gene(s) for eye colour is located on the Y chromosome.
  4. Gene(s) for eye colour may not be sex-linked.
Question 97 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a newly discovered organism, normal development was unaffected when a few blastomeres were removed from 100-cell stage embryo. However, removal of five cells at the 1000-cell stage abolished the formation of kidney. Which one of the following options most accurately describes the type (s) of specification operating in the development of this organism?

  1. Conditional specification only
  2. Autonomous specification only
  3. Conditional and autonomous specifications
  4. Specification does not occur in this organism
Question 98 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which one of the following organisms, it is easiest to distinguish mutations on adjacent base pairs of DNA through genetic recombination experiments?

  1. Bacteriophages
  2. Yeast
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Bacillus subtilis
Question 99 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

RNA is considered as the first genetic material to have evolved on the earth. Which one of the following properties of RNA is critical for its functioning as the genetic material in the absence of DNA and protein?

  1. The presence of uracil as a base in place of thymine
  2. The RNA is less stable than DNA; therefore RNA has higher probability to evolve as genetic material as compared to DNA
  3. The single stranded RNA has a genotype as well as phenotype
  4. RNA exists in 3 forms while DNA has only one form
Question 100 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The birth control pills contain hormonal formulations that may either arrest the ovulation or prevent the fertilization of egg. Some of the formulations do both. Which one of the following combinations represents a formulation that is likely to affect the process of ovulation and fertilization?

  1. Progesterone and estrogen
  2. Prostaglandin and estrogen
  3. Gonadotrophin and estradiol
  4. Prolactin and estradiol
Question 101 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Behavioral studies on animals have shown that there is relationship between mechanism of reproduction and male parental care (protecting eggs or the young ones). In aquatic invertebrates, fishes and amphibians for example, the species that practice internal fertilization rarely show male parental care while a majority of species that practice external fertilization tend to exhibit male parental care. This is likely due to

  1. the male sex in species that practice internal fertilization are unable to defend against the predators
  2. the male sex in species that practice internal fertilization live on female as parasite
  3. the fact that the females of species that practice external fertilization die soon after laying the eggs
  4. the certainty of paternity in species that practice external fertilization and this behavior is reinforced over generation by natural selection
Question 102 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The term biological magnification refers to the increased levels of a toxin seen in successive trophic levels in a food web. Which one of the following options correctly states the reason(s) for the increment of a toxin in the ecosystem?

  1. The toxin is highly toxic to primary producers, relatively less toxic to primary consumers, and non-toxic to secondary consumers. Thus, a higher level of toxin is seen in species representing higher trophic levels.
  2. The toxin cannot be degraded by microorganism and consequently persist in the environment for years.
  3. The toxin to begin with was not toxic or less toxic, but became more toxic by metabolism in the primary producers.
  4. Both (2) and (3)
Question 103 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

From the point of view of the enzymatic reactions, which of the following DOES NOT belong here?

  1. Telomerase
  2. Reverse transcriptase
  3. Taq polymerase
  4. Primase
Question 104 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about JUXTACRINE signaling?
I. The ligand and the receptor engage in reciprocal signaling.
II. Both the ligand and the receptor are membrane associated proteins.
III. The ligand gets proteolytically cleaved after binding to the receptor.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I, II and III
Question 105 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following amino acid change (mutation) would MOST adversely affect the structure of an $\alpha$-helix?

  1. A valine residue changed to an isoleucine residue
  2. A methionine residue changed to a proline residue
  3. An aspartic acid residue changed to a glutamic acid residue
  4. A histidine residue changed to an arganine residue
Question 106 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The protein responsible for spongy structure in bread is

  1. Albumin
  2. Zein
  3. Gluten
  4. Gliadin
Question 107 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The factor most responsible for making a good ice cream is

  1. Water content
  2. Homogenization
  3. Emulsifying agent
  4. Mixing index
Question 108 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Listed below are some of the functions of fats in the human nutrition. Identify the INCORRECT function.

  1. Concentrated source of energy
  2. Transport of oxygen to various organs
  3. Absorption of fat soluble vitamins
  4. Synthesis of cell membrane and hormones
Question 109 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

During ripening of cheese by Penicillium roqueforti the characteristic aroma is because of

  1. Methyl ketones
  2. Aceto acetic acid
  3. Diacetyl
  4. Acetoin
Question 110 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in case of oxidative rancidity of fatty foods?

  1. Peroxides and hydroperoxides are formed during auto-oxidation.
  2. Auto-oxidation is a complex chain reaction.
  3. The final breakdown products of auto-oxidation are aldehydes, ketones and alcohols.
  4. The reaction is brought about by an enzyme, called lipase.
Question 111 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following group of characteristics is CORRECT in respect of Shigella species found as food pathogen?

  1. Gram positive, motile by gliding, spore forming cocci and transmitted by contaminated food.
  2. Gram negative, motile by flagella, spore forming bacilli and transmitted by contaminated water.
  3. Gram positive, non-motile, non-spore forming cocci and transmitted by contaminated air and water both.
  4. Gram negative, non-motile, non-spore forming and transmitted by fecal-oral route.
Question 112 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Relate the vitamins listed below (left hand side) with the associated diseases (right hand side)

 
P. Thiamin 1. Pellagra
Q. Nicotinic acid 2. Beriberi
R. Folic acid 3. Scurvy
S. Ascorbic acid 4. Anemia
  1. P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4
  2. P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1
  3. P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3
  4. P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2
Question 113 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following conditions for the heat resistance of microorganisms is CORRECT?

  1. Psychrophiles < Mesophiles < Thermophiles
  2. Psychrophiles > Mesophiles > Thermophiles
  3. Thermophiles > Psychrophiles > Mesophiles
  4. Mesophiles < Thermophiles < Psychrophiles
Question 114 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The solubility of sodium bicarbonate in water is 9.6 g/100 g at 20°C and 16.4 g/100 g at 60°C. If a saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate at 60°C is cooled to 20°C, the percentage of the dissolved salt crystallized out will be

  1. 20.5
  2. 25.4
  3. 41.5
  4. 45.2
Question 115 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE in terms of nutritive evaluation of proteins?

  1. PER is defined as the live weight gain per unit weight of protein intake.
  2. ‘Metabolic nitrogen’ is the amount of nitrogen present in the feces when a nitrogen free diet is fed to an animal.
  3. Net protein utilization is a product of biological value and digestibility.
  4. ‘Chemical score’ of a mixed protein diet can be calculated from the total amino acids present in the mixture.
Question 116 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A sugar syrup (density = 1040 kg/m3 and viscosity = 1600 $\times$ 10–6 Pa.s) is required to be pumped into a tank (1.5 m diameter and 3 m height) by a 3 cm inside diameter pipe. If the liquid is required to flow under laminar conditions, the minimum time to fill the tank with the syrup will be

  1. 192.9 h
  2. 19.3 h
  3. 38.6 h
  4. 57.9 h
Question 117 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the following sauerkraut defects for their causative agents

P. Soft kraut 1. Due to growth of bacteria, mold and/or yeast
Q. Slimy kraut 2. Due to surface growth of Torula yeast
R. Rotted kraut 3. Bacterial growth does not initiate till last stage
S. Pink kraut 4. Rapid growth of Lactobacillus cucumens and L, plantarum specially at elevated temperature
  1. P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1
  2. P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2
  3. P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4
  4. P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3
Question 118 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the following carbohydrates with their use in the food processing:

 
P. High amylose starch 1. White sauces in cook freeze operations
Q. Pectin 2. Edible film for wrapping candies
R. Starch phosphates 3. As humectant in confectionary
S. Glucose 4. Setting agent in jams and jellies
  1. P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3
  2. P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3
  3. P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4
  4. P – 4, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2
Question 119 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the food items and their principal flavouring agents given in the two columns below.

P. Butter 1. Menthol
Q. Orange 2. Limonene
R. Cloves 3. Eugenol
S. Mint 4. Diacetal
  1. P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
  2. P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4
  3. P – 4, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 2
  4. P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1
Question 120 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the food items on left hand side with their colloidal nature on right hand side.

 
P. Curd 1. Foam
Q. Butter 2. Emulsion
R. Vegetable soup 3. Sol
S. Whipped egg white 4. Gel
  1. P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 4
  2. P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1
  3. P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1
  4. P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2
Question 121 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In an actively growing (exponential phase) yeast culture, the cell concentration increased from 103 cells per ml to 107 cells per ml in 4 h. The doubling time of the yeast is

  1. 120 minutes
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 18 minutes
  4. 60 minutes
Question 122 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The steps followed in Gram’s staining of microorganisms are
P. Washing with neutral organic solvent
Q. Counter staining with a contrast dye
R. Staining with basic dye
S. Fixing the colour with a suitable mordant
Identify the CORRECT sequence.

  1. Q $\rightarrow$ S $\rightarrow$ R $\rightarrow$ P
  2. P $\rightarrow$ Q $\rightarrow$ R $\rightarrow$ S
  3. Q $\rightarrow$ P $\rightarrow$ S $\rightarrow$ R
  4. R $\rightarrow$ S $\rightarrow$ P $\rightarrow$ Q
Question 123 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A continuous dryer was used to dry 12 kg/min of a blanched vegetable containing 50% moisture (wet weight basis) to give a product containing 10% moisture. As the dryer could handle feed material with moisture content not more than 25%, a part of dried material was recycled and mixed with the fresh feed. The evaporation rate in the dryer will be

  1. 2.08 kg/min
  2. 5.33 kg/min
  3. 3.33 kg/min
  4. 2.93 kg/min
Question 124 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An enzyme has a Km of 4.7 $\times$ 10–5 M and Vm is 22 micro moles per litre per min. The enzyme reaction is carried out at a substrate concentration of 2 $\times$ 10-4 M. The initial reaction velocity for this enzyme catalyzed reaction will be

  1. 6.5 micro moles per litre per min
  2. 17.8 micro moles per litre per min
  3. 13.0 micro moles per litre per min
  4. 8.9 micro moles per litre per min
Question 125 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The F – value at 121.1°C, equivalent to 99.9999 percent destruction of a strain of Clostridium botulinum, is 1.8 mm. The Do value (decimal reduction time at reference temperature) of the organism will be

  1. 10.8 min
  2. 0.3 min
  3. 6.0 min
  4. 0.2 min