CSAT (Paper - I) Mock - 11

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Cherrapunji is the second wettest on Earth after Mawsynram. It is about 50 km from Shillong in East Khasi Hill. Mawsynram is reported to be the wettest place on Earth. It has a reported average annual rainfall of 467.4 Inches (11,872 millimeters).
Statement 2: It is correct. Mawsynram is a village in the East Khasi district of Meghalaya state in the North-East part of India. It’s about 65 kilometers from Shillong.
Hence, the correct option is 2.

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Jayakwadi dam is an Earthen Dam on Godavari river. There are various types of dams based on either structure and design or function or material, such as gravity dam, arch dam, buttress dam, earth dam, rockfill dam, storage dam, diversion dam, detention dam, debris dam, coffer dam, steel dam, timber dam, etc.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Koyna Hydroelectric project is the largest completed hydroelectric power plant in India. It is a complex project involving four dams where Koyna dam on Koyna river is the largest among the four.
Hence, the correct option is 4.

Pair 1: It is correct. Bhorghat is situated on the top of Western Ghat (Sahyadri) mountain ranges, located between Karjat and Khandala in Maharashtra. It is known for its dense woods.
Pair 2: It is incorrect. Eastern ghats run from northern Odisha through Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the South passing some parts of Telangana and Karnataka.
Pair 3: It is incorrect. Golden Valley/ Golden Peak/ Ponmudi is a hill station in Thiruvanthapuram district, Kerala. It is a part of western ghats mountain range which is more than 350 km South from Nilgiri Hills.
Hence, the correct option is 1.

The study conducted by Department of Science and Technology identifies 12 minerals out of 49 that are evaluated as "most critical" for India's manufacturing sector by 2030. These are rare earths, beryllium, chromium, germanium, niobium, rhenium, strontium, zirconium, tantalum, limestone and graphite.
Hence, the correct option is 4.

With China's growing presence in Indian Ocean, India has beefed up maritime surveillance near Malacca Strait. To improve India's Intelligence, Surveillance and reconnaissance capabilities, India will deploy P-8 and strike aircrafts at Andaman and Nicobar Islands as most commercial ships pass through Six Degree Channel and Malacca Strait. This will also address a host of maritime security concerns as diverse as illegal fishing, drug and human smuggling, and terrorism.

Statement 1: It is correct. Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.5° E longitude, passing through Shankargarh fort, Mirzapur near Allahabad in the state of Uttar Pradesh. British India did not adopt the international standard time zones until 1905 when the meridian passing through Allahabad at 82.5° E (Mirzapur) of Greenwich Meridian longitude was picked as the central meridian for India, corresponding to a single time zone for the country at 5 hours and 30 minutes in advance of GMT.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Bagaan Time a.k.a. Chaibagaan Time introduced by British people more than 150 years ago, was set one hour ahead of IST for tea estates, collieries and oil industry of Assam. Moreover, Bureau of Energy Efficiency commissioned a study on quantifying energy savings through advancing IST, based on a paper published by them in Current Science in 2007. Their final report was submitted in September 2011 where it was proposed to advance the IST by half an hour to avoid the problems apprehended with respect to two time zones and DST (Daylight Saving Time).
Hence, the correct option is 1.

Statement 1: It is incorrect. “The jewels of India” describes top 10 highest mountain peaks of India. They are Kanchenjunga, Nanda Devi, Kamet , Saser Kangri I, Mamostong Kangri, Saser Kangri II, Saser Kangri III, Saser Kangri IV , Ghent Kangri and Abi Gamin (in the order of their height). 
Kangchenjunga Main is the highest mountain in India, and the Easternmost of the mountains higher than 8,000 m (26,000 ft). It is called Five Treasures of Snow after its five high peaks, and has always been worshipped by the people of Darjeeling and Sikkim.
Hence, the correct option is 4. 

India connects to the world through 4 port cities Chennai, Mumbai, Cochin and Tuticorin. The cities also host the landing stations – which connect the land cables with the submarine cables. The 8 submarine cables connecting India to the world are SMW3 (South East Asia – Middle East – Western Europe Cable, Landing station in Mumbai), SMW4 (Mumbai-Chennai, Landing station in Mumbai), SAFE (South Africa Far East Cable, Landing Station in Cochin), FLAG (Fiber Optic Link Around the Globe, Landing Station in Mumbai), i2i (Singapore- Chennai Cable, Landing Station in Chennai), TIC (Chennai – Singapore Cable, Landing station in Changi), Falcon (Europe-Middle East- India Cable, Landing Station in Mumbai) and Indo-Sri Lanka Cable (Landing Station in Tuticorin).
Hence, the correct option is 2.

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Three hill ranges that come under purvanchal ranges are Patkai, Garo-Khasi-Jaintia and Lushai hills. Lushai hills aka Mizo hills is part of the Patkai range system. Purvanchal range is parallel to Karakoram and Ladakh range, but Langpangkong hill is in Mokokchung district of Nagaland and along with five other hill ranges, they run in South-East direction.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Satpura mountain range stretches through states in central part of india. It extend across Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh. Whereas, Vindhya range which runs parallel to Satpura range extends from Varanasi through Madhya Pradesh to Gujarat.
Hence, the correct option is 4.

Statement 1: It is correct. Narmada valley in india lying between Vindhya and Satpura ranges is a rift valley resulted from the formation of block mountains. Similarly, Nilgiri in south are also examples of block mountains and Palghat gap is a low mountain pass which is a rift valley caused by subsidence between two parallel faults, i.e. between Nilgiri hills to the North and Anamalai hills to the South.
Statement 2: It is correct. Peninsular Plateau is a tableland, composed of old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. It is considered as oldest land mass as it was formed due to the drifting of Gondwana land.
Statement 3: It is incorrect. Brahmaputra is a transboundry river in Asia that cuts through 3 countries: China, India and Bangladesh. In all these countries, it is known by different names. It originates in Tibet (China), known as Tsangpo River, flows and enters into Arunachal Pradesh (India) where it is called Dihang or siang. Then, it flows further through Assam valley where it is known as Brahmaputra and enters Ramnabazar (Bangladesh) where its known as Jamuna.
Hence, the correct option is 1.

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Ladakh/Tibetian plateau is the highest with an elevation of 14,800 ft, spread in area of 25,50,000 square kilometres, thus becoming the highest and largest plateau in the world and is known as Roof of the world. Whereas, Deccan Plateau is a large plateau in India spanning over 4,22,000 square kilometres and stands as tall as 330 ft.
Statement 2: It is correct. Chhota Nagpur Plateau is a part of greater Deccan Plateau. It possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests. Damodar valley is rich in coal and is the primary producer of coking coal. Massive coal deposits are found in central basin constituting Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro, Ramgarh and Karanpura.

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Indira Point in Nicobar Islands is the Southernmost point of Republic of India. It is situated on Great Nicobar Island in the Nicobar Islands, which are located in the Eastern Indian Ocean at 6°45'10″N and 93°49'36″E. This is not on the Indian mainland, but within the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Whereas, Kanyakumari is the Southernmost location of mainland India.
Statement 2: It is correct. Guhar moti in Kutch near Sir Creek, Gujarat is the Westernmost inhabited village in India.

Kal Baisakhi or Norwesters originate in the Chhotanagpur Plateau, in and around the cities of Ranchi and Jamshedpur during hot weather months. In times of incursion of moist air in these elevated regions, amidst high temperatures, these extremely destructive thunderstorms occur. 

Monsoon forests, also called dry forests or tropical deciduous forests, are an open woodland in tropical areas that have a long dry season followed by a season of heavy rainfall. The trees in a monsoon forests usually shed their leaves during the dry season and come into leaf at the start of the rainy season. 

Monazite is a reddish-brown phosphate mineral containing rare earth metals. It occurs usually in small isolated crystals. It is enriched in lanthanum and cerium. Monazite is radioactive due to the presence of uranium. 

Black soil is formed by the weathering of igneous rocks and the cooling of lava after a volcanic eruption. They are mainly found in the Deccan Trap/Deccan Plateau, which includes Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Tamil Nadu. These soils have been formed due to the weathering of the lava rocks. This soil is also known as regur soil and black cotton soil. These soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina, but lack in the phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter. 

Statement 1: It is correct. They are described as evergreen tropical rain forests. Shola forests are found in the higher altitude hill regions of the Nilgiris in Kanyakumari district, the Western Ghats and associated ranges in the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Although, generally said to occur above 2000 metres above sea level, Shola forests can be found at 1600 metres elevation in many hill ranges.
Statement 2: It is correct. The flora of Shola shows great adaptability to extreme climates and wind. Branches of Shola trees are colonised by a variety of species who are getting the water supply from the condensing mist. 

Explanation: Hirakud dam is built across Mahanadi river in the state of Odisha. It is one of the longest dam in the world. The major tributaries of Mahanadi are Seonath, Jonk, Hasdo, Mand, Ib, Ong, Tel, etc. The Seonath River is the longest tributary of Mahanadi. 

Explanation: Gujarat is the second highest producer of bananas in India with a production capacity of over 4500000 million tonnes. Tamil Nadu is the highest producer of bananas in India with production of over 5100000 million tones. Other major banana growing states are Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Assam, Karnataka, Kerala, Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh. In terms of area under cultivation, Tamil Nadu ranks first.

Explanation: The Gulf of Khambhat (also known as the Gulf of Cambay) is an inlet of the Arabian Sea along the West coast of India, in the state of Gujarat. It is about 130 kilometres in length and divides the Kathiawar peninsula to the West from the Eastern part of Gujarat state. The Narmada, Tapti, Mahi and Sabarmati rivers drain into it.

Explanation: Although the energy produced by fission is comparable to what is produced by fusion, the core of the Sun is dominated by hydrogen and at temperatures where hydrogen fusion is possible, so that the dominant source of energy per cubic metre is in fusion rather than the fission due to very low abundance of radioisotopes.

Statement 1: It is incorrect. The MMR vaccine (also known as the MPR-vaccine after the Latin names of the diseases) is an immunisation vaccine against measles, mumps, and rubella (German measles). It is a mixture of live attenuated viruses of the three diseases, administered via injection. It was first developed by Maurice Hilleman while at Merck.
Statement 2: It is correct. Anaphylaxis is an extremely rare, but serious allergic reaction to the vaccine and its component vaccines. Attenuvax is component vaccine against measles. Mumpsvax is component vaccine against mumps & Meruvax II is component vaccine against rubella. MMR II is supplied freeze-dried (lyophilized) and contains live viruses.

The sunspot cycle happens because of pole flip — North becomes South and South becomes North—approximately every 11 years. Some 11 years later, the poles reverse again back to where they started, making the full solar cycle actually a 22-year phenomenon. The Sun behaves similarly over the course of each 11-year cycle no matter which pole is on top.

Eagle's minimal essential medium (EMEM) is a cell culture medium developed by Harry Eagle that can be used to maintain cells in tissue culture. It contains amino acids, salts (calcium chloride, potassium chloride, magnesium sulfate, sodium chloride, and monosodium phosphate), glucose, vitamins (folic acid, nicotinamide, riboflavin, B12). 

Penicillium is a species of fungus from the family Trichocomaceae. It is common in temperate and subtropical regions and can be found on salted food products, but it is mostly found in indoor environments, especially in damp or water-damaged buildings. 

X-ray crystallography is a tool used for identifying the atomic and molecular structure of a crystal, in which the crystalline atoms cause a beam of incident X-rays to diffract into many specific directions. By measuring the angles and intensities of these diffracted beams, a crystallographer can produce a three-dimensional picture of the density of electrons within the crystal. From this electron density, the mean positions of the atoms in the crystal can be determined, as well as their chemical bonds, their disorder and various other information.

Insulin resistance (IR) is generally regarded as a pathological condition in which cells fail to respond to the normal actions of the hormone insulin. The body produces insulin when glucose starts to be released into the bloodstream from the digestion of carbohydrates in the diet. Normally, this insulin response triggers glucose being taken into body cells, to be used for energy and inhibits the body from using fat as energy. The level of glucose in the blood decreases as a result, staying within the normal range even when a large amount of carbohydrates is consumed. When the body produces insulin under conditions of insulin resistance, the cells in the body are resistant to the insulin and are unable to use it effectively. It leads to high blood sugar. Beta cells in the pancreas subsequently increase their production of insulin, further contributing to a high blood insulin level. This often remains undetected and can contribute to a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes or latent autoimmune diabetes of adults. Although this type of chronic insulin resistance is harmful, during acute illness it is actually a well-evolved protective mechanism.

The cell membrane is a selectively permeable membrane, meaning that it allows the passage of water and some selected solutes.

The most familiar and historically the oldest types of glass are "silicate glasses" based on the chemical compound silica (silicon dioxide), the primary constituent of sand. The term glass, in popular usage, is often used to refer only to this type of material, which is familiar from use as window glass and in glass bottles.

Statement 1: It is correct. In case of humans, other mammals and birds, the heart is divided into four chambers: upper left and right atria; and lower left and right ventricles. Fish, in contrast, have two chambers, an atrium and a ventricle, while reptiles have three chambers.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. In a healthy heart, blood flows one way through the heart due to heart valves which prevent backflow. The heart is enclosed in a protective sac, the pericardium which also contains a small amount of fluid. The wall of the heart is made up of three layers: epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium.
Statement 3: It is correct. Pericardial fluid is the serous fluid secreted by the serous layer of the pericardium into the pericardial cavity. The fluid is similar to the cerebrospinal fluid of the brain which also serves to cushion and allow some movement of the organ.
Hence, the correct option is 2.

In biochemistry, the pentose phosphate pathway (also called the phosphogluconate pathway and thehexose monophosphate shunt) is a metabolic pathway parallel to glycolysis that generates NADPH andpentoses (5-carbon sugars) as well as Ribose 5-phosphate, a precursor for the synthesis of nucleotides. While it does involve oxidation of glucose, its primary role is anabolic rather than catabolic. There are two distinct phases in the pathway. The first is the oxidative phase, in which NADPH is generated, and the second is the non-oxidative synthesis of 6-carbon sugars. For most organisms, the pentose phosphate pathway takes place in the cytosol; in plants, most steps take place in plastids.

Selman Abraham Waksman (July 22, 1888 – August 16, 1973) was a Russian-born, Jewish-American inventor, biochemist and microbiologist whose research into organic substances—largely into organisms that live in soil—and their decomposition promoted the discovery of Streptomycin, and several other antibiotics.

Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are glycoprotein molecules produced by plasma cells (white blood cells). They act as a critical part of the immune response by specifically recognising and binding to particular antigens, such as bacteria or viruses and aiding in their destruction. 

Fructose is one of the sweetest of all sugars and is combined with glucose to make sucrose, galactose or common table sugar. An older common name for fructose is levulose, after its levorotatory property of rotating plane polarized light to the left (in contrast to glucose which is dextrorotatory).

The stapes is the third bone of the three ossicles in the middle ear. The stapes is a stirrup-shaped bone, and the smallest in the human body. It rests on the oval window, to which it is connected by an annular ligament. 

At first, scientists believed that the nearest black hole to the Earth was the one at the center of the Milky Way Galaxy. This seemed to be debunked by the discovery of a new black hole only 1600 light years away. This new black hole is actually a rare type of black hole called a micro quasar. This new black hole has been named V4641 Sgr since it is located in the Sagittarius arm of the Milky Way. The reason it is visible is because of the star that orbits it. The gases of this star are steadily being absorbed by this black hole. These gases emit radiation that can be detected by Earth’s telescopes.

Mitochondria are an essential organelle in eukaryotic cells. Their function is to convert the potential energy of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids into adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in a process called oxidative phosphorylation. Mitochondria carry their own DNA, called mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA). Between 20 and 25 percent of Leigh syndrome cases are caused by mutations in mitochondrial DNA.

Protozoa are a cellular animals of small size, they have a permeable limiting membrane which prevents the animals from growing beyond a certain size, and it precludes the formation of structures which will give strength and rigidity necessary for a large size. 

Like all types of dementia, Alzheimer's is caused by brain cells death. It is a neurodegenerative disease, which means there is progressive brain cells death that happens over a course of time. The total brain size shrinks with Alzheimer's - the tissue has progressively fewer nerve cells and connections. In Alzheimer's, there are microscopic 'plaques' and 'tangles' between and within brain cells. While they cannot be seen or tested in the living brain affected by Alzheimer's disease, postmortem/autopsy will always show tiny inclusions in the nerve tissue, called plaques and tangles. Plaques are found between the dying cells in the brain - from the build-up of a protein called beta-amyloid.

Optic neuritis is an inflammation of the optic nerve, the bundle of nerve fibres that transmits visual information from your eye to your brain. Pain and temporary vision loss are common symptoms of optic neuritis. Optic neuritis is highly associated with multiple sclerosis, a disease that causes inflammation and damage to nerves in your brain and spinal cord. In some people, signs and symptoms of optic neuritis may be the first indication of multiple sclerosis. Most people who have a single episode of optic neuritis eventually recover their vision. Treatment with steroid medications may speed up vision recovery after optic neuritis.

Resource recovery process usually means heat recovery by incineration. An estimated 14-16 percent of the United States’ waste stream is incinerated. Wastes are taken to a modern energy recovery facility where they are burned in combustion chambers or boilers. 

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Vermin are wild animals which are believed to be harmful to crops, farm animals, game, or which carry disease, e.g. herd of nilgais which enter cotton and red gram fields look for fodder near Telangana region.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Bengal Florican and Great Indian Bustard are the endangered grassland species, whereas Siberian Crane is an endangered migratory wetland species.

Ozone depletion describes two distinct, but related phenomena observed since the late 1970s: a steady decline of about four percent in the total amount of ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere (the ozone layer) and a much larger springtime decrease in stratospheric ozone around the Earth's polar regions. The latter phenomenon is referred to as the ozone hole. In addition to these well-known stratospheric phenomena, there are also springtime polar tropospheric ozone depletion events. Reduction of plankton populations in the ocean's photic zone may result from the increased UV exposure due to ozone depletion.

Interspecific competition, in ecology, is a form of competition in which individuals of different species compete for the same resource in an ecosystem (e.g. food or living space). The other form of competition is intraspecific competition, which involves organisms of the same species. 

Biotic factors are all of the living organisms within an ecosystem. These may be plants, animals, fungi, and any other living things. Abiotic factors are all of the non-living things in an ecosystem. 

Detritivores, also known as detritophages, detritus feeders, or detritus eaters, are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus (decomposing plant and animal parts as well as feces).

Photosynthesis is a process used by plants and other organisms to convert light energy, normally from the Sun, into chemical energy that can be later released to fuel the organisms' activities (energy transformation). Most plants, most algae, and cyanobacteria perform photosynthesis. Such organisms are called photoautotrophs.

The carrying capacity of a biological species in an environment is the maximum population size of the species that the environment can sustain indefinitely, given the food, habitat, water and other necessities available in the environment.

Transpiration is the process by which moisture is carried through plants from roots to small pores on the underside of leaves, where it changes to vapour and is released to the atmosphere. Transpiration is essentially evaporation of water from plant leaves.

A plant will abscise a part either to discard a member that is no longer necessary, such as a leaf during autumn, or a flower following fertilisation, or for the purposes of reproduction. Another form of abscission is fruit drop, when a plant abscises fruit while still immature, in order to conserve resources needed to bring the remaining fruit to maturity. If a leaf is damaged, a plant may also abscise it to conserve water or photosynthetic efficiency, depending on the 'costs' to the plant as a whole.

Civilization is a form of human culture in which many people live in urban centers, have mastered the art of smelting metals, and have developed a method of writing. The first civilizations began in cities, which were larger, more populated, and more complex in their political, economic and social structure than Neolithic villages. 

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Ancient India starts with the Vedic Age where the people were cattle-herders looking for good pastures, without familiarity with agriculture and grains like rice. Many archaeological sites including Jhusi near Allahabad have yielded proof of rice cultivation in the region during the Neolithic phase, possibly as far as back as 9000 BCE. Whereas Indus Valley Civilisation (Harappa culture) was a Bronze Age civilisation (3300–1300 BCE and mature period was 2600–1900 BCE).
Statement 2: It is correct. Pattanam excavations were the first ever multi-disciplinary excavations undertaken in Kerala State. The main objective of the excavation was to search for archaeological evidence that would help to locate/identify an early historic urban settlement and the ancient Indo-Roman port of Muziris / Musiri on the Malabar Coast. 

The greatest achievement of Sumerian civilization was their Cunieform ("wedge-shaped") system of writing. Using a reed stylus, they made wedge-shaped impressions on wet clay tablets which were then baked in the sun. Once dried, these tablets were virtually indestructible. Originally, Sumerian writing was pictographic, that is, scribes drew pictures of representations of objects. 

Statement 1: It is correct. Ornaments made of gold, silver, copper, ivory, pottery and beads have been discovered in civilisations as ancient as the Harappa and Mohenjodaro. The people of the Indus Valley Civilization were the first to explore the jewellery making craft. The Harappans also made various toys and games, among them is cubical dice.
Statement 2: It is correct. Libation was a drink poured out as an offering to a deity. It was believed that the gods were gratified with these offerings of food and drink and in return, they gave the worshipper what he wished for, viz. wealth, sons, long life and victory over enemies. 
Statement 3: It is correct. Great Bath at Mohenjodaro is widely thought to have been so used, as a place for ritual purification. This tank would have been used for special religious functions where water was used to purify and renew the well being of the bathers.
Hence, the correct option is 4.

Statement 1: It is correct. The Gandhara School of art had also developed in first century AD along with Mathura School during the reign of Kushana emperor Kanishka. Both Shakas and Kushanas were patrons of Gandhara School, which is known for the first sculptural representations of the Buddha in human form. The art of the Gandhara school was primarily Mahayana and shows Greco-Roman influence. The Gandharan Buddha image was inspired by Hellenistic realism, influenced by Persian, Scythian, and Parthian models.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. The 'Caves of the Thousand Buddhas' are also known as Mogao. The caves are an example of magnificent Buddhist art. They are located in the desert, about 15 miles South-East of the town of Dunhuang in North-Western China. 

Statement 1: It is correct. The development of the Bhakti cult first began in South India in the 7^th-8^th century in order to bridge the gap between the Shaivas and the Vaishnavas. It stood for intense personal devotion and complete self-surrender to God. The roots of the Bhakti Movement can be traced to the Upanishads, the Puranas and the Bhagavad Gita. Shankaracharya is reputed to have been the first and principal exponent of this reform movement.
Statement 2: It is correct. The Bhakti movement became popular among the common masses as its teachings were preached in the form of hymns in various popular languages. In this accessible form, Bhakti ideas were spread among wide strata of the population and the hymns frequently became folk songs. Amongst the leaders of the Bhakti movement, Ramananda, Kabir, Ramanuja, Sri Chaitanya, Nanak, etc. were prominent.

Statement 1: It is correct. The Lodi dynasty (Lodhi) was an Afghan Pashtun dynasty that ruled Delhi Sultanate from 1451 to 1526. It was founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi. Lodhi dynasty's reign ended under Ibrahim Lodi, after his defeat and death in the First Battle of Panipat allowed the Mughal empire to establish itself in Northern India.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Babar was the founder of the Mughal Empire. He came to India and defeated Ibrahim, the last Lodi Sultan in 1526. Babar was succeeded by his son Humayun, but he was ousted from Delhi by Sher Shah, an Afghan chieftain. Though Sher Shah (1540-45 AD) ruled only for a brief period of almost five years, yet he showed great administrative skills. He is remembered as the builder of the Grand Trunk road and also for the reforms he made in the revenue system.

Statement 1: It is correct. The Vijayanagar emperors created thier own architecture style named Provida style which plays a lot of emphasis on piers and pillars.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. The pillars of provida style had inscribed the tales from Ramayana and Mahabharata on the various temple that they have established. Example: Vithalswami temple and Hazari temple at Humpi, Karnataka. Horse was a recurring animal present in all the depictions. 

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Jain philosophy is the oldest Indian philosophy that separates body (matter) from the soul (consciousness) completely.
Statement 2: It is correct. Jains believe that Jainism is eternal and maintain that all living beings are really soul, intrinsically perfect and immortal.
Statement 3: It is correct. Souls in samsara (i.e. liability to repeated births and deaths) are said to be imprisoned in the body. Practitioners believe non-violence and self-control are the means to moksha (liberation). 
Hence, the correct option is 3.

Statement 1: It is incorrect. The edicts focus on social and moral precepts rather than specific religious practices or the philosophical dimension of Buddhism.
Statement 2: It is correct. The inscriptions has themes such as Ashoka's conversion to Buddhism, the description of his efforts to spread Buddhism, etc.
Statement 3: It is correct. The edicts also represent Ashoka’s moral and religious precepts, and his social and animal welfare program.
Hence, the correct option is 3.

The Chauri Chaura incident occurred at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United Province, British India on 4^th February 1922, when a large group of protesters participating in the Non-cooperation movement turned violent, leading to police firing. In retaliation, the demonstrators attacked and set fire to a police station, killing all of its occupants. 

The movement of Muslim awakening associated with Syed Ahmad Khan and Muhammadan Anglo Oriental College came to be known as Aligarh Movement. It influenced a number of other contemporary movements to a great extent that it caused the emergence of other socio-religious movements during the 19^th century. The Aligarh Movement was the drive for modern Muslim education and made a weighty and lasting contribution to the political emancipation of Indian Muslims. In 1886, Sir Syed Ahmad Khan founded the All India Educational Conference in order to promote more broadly the educational objectives of Aligarh Movement. The Aligarh Movement introduced a new trend in Urdu literature.

By 1940, Jinnah had come to believe that Indian Muslims should have their own state. In that year, the Muslim League, led by Jinnah, passed the Lahore Resolution, demanding a separate nation. During the Second World War, the League gained strength, while the leaders of the Congress were imprisoned, and in the elections held shortly after the war, it won most of the seats reserved for Muslims. Ultimately, the Congress and the Muslim League could not reach a power-sharing formula for a united India, leading all parties to agree to separate independence of a predominantly Hindu India, and for a Muslim-majority state, to be called Pakistan.

The first Satyagraha movements inspired by Mahatma Gandhi took place in Champaran district of Bihar and the Kheda district of Gujarat from 1917 to 1918. Champaran is a district in the state of Bihar where tens of thousands of landless serfs, indentured labourers and poor farmers were forced to grow indigo and other cash crops instead of the food crops, which were necessary for their survival. These goods were bought from them at a very low price. Suppressed by the ruthless militias of the landlords (mostly British), they were given measly compensation leaving them in extreme poverty. Now in the throes of a devastating famine, the British levied a harsh tax. Without food and without money, the situation was growing worse and the peasants in Champaran revolted against the conditions in indigo plant cultivation in 1914 (at Pipra) and in 1916 at (Turkaulia).

In Ahmedabad, there were many textile mills. Prices had gone up and the mill workers were demanding higher wages. The mill owners would not agree. Gandhi sympathised with the workers and took up their cause. He launched a struggle and resorted to peaceful resistance. The workers proudly followed Gandhi and pledged their full support to him. 

The Government of India Act 1919 had introduced the system of diarchy to govern the provinces of British India. The Indian public clamoured for revision of this form of government, and the Government of India Act 1919 itself stated that a commission would be appointed after ten years to investigate the progress of the governance scheme and suggest new steps for reform. In the late 1920s, the Conservative government then in power in Britain feared imminent electoral defeat at the hands of the Labour Party, and also feared the effects of the consequent transference of control of India to such an "inexperienced" body. Hence, it appointed seven British MPs to constitute the promised commission to examine the state of Indian constitutional affairs. Many in India were outraged and insulted that the Simon Commission, which was to determine the future of India, did not include a single Indian member. The Indian National Congress, at its December 1927 meeting in Madras (now Chennai), resolved to boycott the commission.

Chittaranjan Das was a leading figure in Bengal during the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1919-1922, and initiated the ban on British clothes, setting an example by burning his own European clothes and wearing Khadi clothes. At one time, his clothes were tailored and washed in Paris and he maintained a permanent laundry in Paris to ship his clothes to Calcutta. He sacrificed all this luxury when he became attached to the Freedom Movement. He brought out a newspaper called 'Forward' and later changed its name to 'Liberty' to fight the British Raj. He is generally referred to by the honorific as Desh Bandhu meaning "Friend of the nation".

Chandrashekhar Azad committed himself to achieving complete independence by any means. Azad also believed that India's future lay in socialism. He met a young revolutionary, Pranvesh Chatterji, who introduced him to Ram Prasad Bismil who had formed the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), a revolutionary organisation. Azad was impressed with the aim of HRA, i.e. an independent India with equal rights and opportunity to everyone without discrimination of caste, creed, religion or social status. 

A zamindar in the Indian subcontinent was an aristocrat, typically hereditary, holding enormous tracts of land and held control over his peasants, from whom the zamindars reserved the right to collect tax often for military purposes. Often zamindars were Indian princes who lost their sovereignty due to the British Rule. During the Mughal Empire, zamindars belonged to the nobility and formed the ruling class. Zamindars held considerable powers in their territories: magisterial, army recruitment (as lathials), revenue collection and taxation, among others.

The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt Act, was a legislative act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on March 18, 1919, indefinitely extending the emergency measures of preventive indefinite detention, incarceration without trial and judicial review enacted in the Defence of India Act 1915. Passed on the recommendations of the Rowlatt Committee and named after its president, British judge Sir Sidney Rowlatt, this act effectively authorised the government to imprison any person suspected of terrorism living in the Raj for up to two years without a trial, and gave the imperial authorities power to deal with all revolutionary activities. 

Kakatiya Mission is a flagship programme of the Telangana state government aimed at restoring 46,300 tanks in five years spending Rs. 20,000 crore. Works of about 8,000 tanks, costing Rs. 3,000 crore, is underway and would be completed before the onset of monsoon. The initiative will improve the groundwater table, reduce the power consumption by farm sector, get higher yields, spur the growth of livestock and rejuvenate rural economy on the whole.

Flagship program of the Telengana state government named Telanganaku Haritha Haram envisages increasing the green cover of the State from the present 25.16 to 33 per cent of the total geographical area. A total of 230 crore seedlings would be raised in the coming three years starting the first week of July celebrated as ‘Green Week’. Fifty lakh saplings would be planted in GHMC limits alone this monsoon. Forest Department and District Water Management Agency (DWMA) have made ready 41 crore saplings for this year. Rs. 325 crore has been set aside in the FY 2015-16 for the purpose.

Bhamashah Yojana is a scheme introduced by the Government of Rajasthan to transfer financial and non-financial benefits of governmental schemes directly to recipients in a transparent way. The scheme was inaugurated by Chief Minister Vasundhara Raje on 15^th August 2014.

The National Highways Development Project is a project to upgrade, rehabilitate and widen major highways in India to a higher standard. The project was implemented in 1998 under the leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. "National Highways" account for only about 2% of the total length of roads, but carry about 40% of the total traffic across the length and breadth of the country. This project is managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) under the Ministry of Road, Transport and Highways. 

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).

Atal Pension Yojana is a government-backed pension scheme in India targeted at the unorganised sector. It was originally mentioned in the 2015 Budget speech by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in February 2015. It was formally launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9^th May in Kolkata. As of May 2015, only 11% of India's population has any kind of pension scheme, this scheme aims to increase the number. In Atal Pension Yojana, for every contribution made to the pension fund, The Central Government would also co-contribute 50% of the total contribution or ₹1,000 per annum, whichever is lower, to each eligible subscriber account, for a period of 5 years. The minimum age of joining APY is 18 years and maximum age is 40 years. The age of exit and start of pension would be 60 years. Therefore, minimum period of contribution by the subscriber under APY would be 20 years or more.

For sustained agricultural growth and to promote balanced nutrient application, it is imperative that fertilizers are made available to farmers at affordable prices. With this objective, urea being the only controlled fertilizer, is sold at statutory notified uniform sale price, and decontrolled Phosphatic and Potassic fertilizers are sold at indicative maximum retail prices (MRPs). The problems faced by the manufactures in earning a reasonable return on their investment with reference to controlled prices, are mitigated by providing support under the New Pricing Scheme for Urea units and the concession Scheme for decontrolled Phosphatic and Potassic fertilizers. 

Pollution prevention is reducing or eliminating waste at the source by modifying production processes, promoting the use of non-toxic or less toxic substances, implementing conservation techniques, and reusing materials rather than putting them into the waste stream. The Pollution Prevention Act defines "source reduction" to mean any practice which reduces the amount of any hazardous substance, pollutant or contaminant entering any waste stream or otherwise released into the environment (including fugitive emissions); prior to recycling, treatment or disposal.
 

Treasury bills are instrument of short-term borrowings by the Government of India, issued as promissory notes under discount. The interest received on them is the discount, which is the difference between the price at which they are issued and their redemption value. They have assured yield and negligible risk of default.

Statement 1: It is correct. Several factors determine the inflationary impact in the country. One of the factors is Demand, i.e. when the aggregate demand in the economy has exceeded the aggregate supply or described as a situation where too much money chases just few goods.
Example: A country has a capacity of producing just 500 units of a commodity, but the actual demand in the country is 800 units. Hence, due to scarcity in supply, the prices of the commodity rise. 
Statement 2: It is correct. The other major factor is supply that is responsible for rising inflation in India. The agricultural scarcity or the damage in transit creates a scarcity causing high inflationary pressures clubbed with high cost of labour increases the final output produced and eventually increasing the production cost and leads to a high price for the commodity.
Statement 3: It is correct. Domestic factor is also one of the factors responsible in inflation rising in India. There is a gap in India for both the output and the real money gap. The supply of money grows rapidly while the supply of goods takes due time which causes increased inflation. Similarly, Hoarding has been a problem of major concern in India where onion prices have shot high in the sky.
Statement 4: It is correct. External Factors such as exchange rate is also an important component for the inflationary pressures that arises in the India. As the prices in USA rise, it impacts India where the commodities are imported at a higher price impacting the price rise. Hence, the nominal exchange rate and the import inflation are measures that depict the competitiveness and challenges for the economy.
Hence, the correct option is 4.

Statement 1: It is correct. The Fundamental rights are defined as the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights, defined in Part III of the Constitution, apply irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed or gender. They are enforceable by the courts, subject to specific restrictions.
Statement 2: It is correct. The Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties are sections of the Constitution of India that prescribe the fundamental obligations of the State to its citizens and the duties of the citizens to the State. These sections comprise a constitutional bill of rights for government policy-making and the behaviour and conduct of citizens. 
Statement 3: It is incorrect. Fundamental rights are basic human rights of all citizens irrespective of minors or majors.
Statement 4: It is correct. Right to Education is not a fundamental right in Jammu and Kashmir. The relationship of the state with the Indian Union is governed by Article 370 of the Constitution of India; the provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the fundamental rights have been applied to the state through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 promulgated by the President. 
Hence, the correct option is 4.

Statement 1: It is correct. Article 153 of Constitution says that there shall be Governor for each state. 7^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. In Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Puducherry and Delhi, administrator is called Lt. Governor, while in Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu and Lakshadweep he/she is known as the Administrator.

Statement 1: It is correct. The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Attorney General for India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Statement 3: It is correct. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, also must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President and must be a citizen of India.

Statement 1: It is correct. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all the persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level.
Statement 2: It is correct. Any provision of Panchayati Raj is not applicable to states of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram, Hill areas in the State of Manipur. Some provisions are not applicable to hill areas of the District of Darjeeling in the State of West Bengal which affect the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council (such as district level provisions). The reservation provisions of Panchayati Raj are not applicable to Arunachal Pradesh. 

Statement 1: It is correct. Constitution bench is the name given to the benches of the Supreme Court of India which consist of at least five judges of the court which sit to decide any case of the Constitution of India.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. The Chief Justice of India has the power to constitute a Constitution Bench and refer cases to it. 
Statement 3: It is correct. Supreme Court considers only those appeals from any judgment, decree or final order in a proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India, if the High Court certifies under Article 134(A) that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance; and in the opinion of the High Court, the said question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.

Statement 1: It is correct. Recently, Finance Minister announced withdrawal of tax exemptions from a host of services including those provided by lawyers to other advocates, including on arbitral tribunals, even as he exempted financial regulators and others from service tax. The Finance Bill 2016 proposes that the power to arrest in service tax evasion is being restricted only to situations where the taxpayer has collected the tax, but not deposited it to the exchequer.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Tax administration does not rely solely upon taxpayer declarations, business records, and books of account to determine tax liability, etc.
Statement 3: It is correct. The Finance Bill 2016 also proposes that the power to arrest in service tax evasion is being restricted to situations where the taxpayer has collected the tax, but not deposited it to the exchequer, and that too above a threshold of Rs. 2 crore.

Ministry of Corporate Affairs regulates corporate affairs in India through the Companies Act, 1956, 2013 and other allied Acts, Bills and Rules. It also protects investors and offers many important services to stakeholders. The Ministry is primarily concerned with administration of the Companies Act 2013, the Companies Act 1956, the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 & other allied Acts and rules & regulations framed there-under mainly for regulating the functioning of the corporate sector in accordance with law. 

The Ministry of AYUSH was formed on 9^th November, 2014 to ensure the optimal development and propagation of AYUSH systems of health care. Earlier, it was known as the Department of Indian System of Medicine and Homeopathy (ISM&H), which was created in March 1995 and was renamed as Department of Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (AYUSH) in November 2003, with focused attention for development of Education and Research in Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy.

The Ministry of Women and Child Development has 6 autonomous organisations:

1.         National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD)
2.         National Commission for Women (NCW)
3.         National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
4.         Central Adoption Resource Agency (CARA)
6.         Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK)

Statement 1: It is correct. The Defence Minister is the head of the Ministry of Defence. He is charged with coordinating and supervising all agencies and functions of the government relating directly to national security and the Indian armed forces and the ministry has the largest budget of the federal departments of India. However, the President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces of the country.
Statement 2: It is correct. Ministry of Defence comprises of four Departments viz. Department of Defence (DOD), Department of Defence Production (DDP), Department of Defence Research & Development (DDR&D) (a.k.a DRDO) and Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare and also Finance Division.

Statement 1: It is correct. Institutions like IMF and World Bank introduced Structural reforms which included dispensing loans to troubled economies from the 1950s onwards; they attached pre-conditions to these loans. One of the five main structural reforms is trade liberalisation, i.e. lifting restrictions on imports and exports.
Statement 2: It is correct. The other reforms are balancing budgets rather than the overspending and removing price controls and state subsidies.
Statement 3: It is correct. To encourage more investment such as through FDI and FII flows is also one of the structural reforms.
Statement 4: It is correct. IMF and World Bank were keen on improving governance and fighting corruption. 

Statement 1: It is correct. India is a traditionally maritime country with rich maritime heritage hence it has an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of about 2.37 million sq km wherein India enjoy the exclusive legal right to utilise all living and non-living resources. 
Statement 2: It is incorrect. It is the feature of Indian SEZ Policy, an SEZ may be set-up in the public, private, or joint sector and/or by a state government. The policy requires the minimum size of an SEZ to be 1000 hectares. Within these zones, units may be set-up for the manufacture of goods, provisioning of services, and other activities including processing, assembling, trading, repairing, reconditioning, making of gold/silver, platinum jewellery, etc. The Policy allows 100% foreign direct investment in most manufacturing activities.
Statement 3: It is correct. An exclusive economic zone (EEZ) is a sea zone prescribed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea over which a state has special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resources, including energy production from water and wind. Fisheries management, usually adhere to guidelines set by the FAO that provides significant practical mechanisms for the control of EEZs. Transboundary fish stocks are an important concept in this control that range in the EEZs of at least two countries. Straddling stocks, on the other hand, range both within an EEZ as well as in the high seas, outside any EEZ. A stock can be both transboundary and straddling.
Hence, the correct option is 2.

Statement 1: It is correct. In the Tashkent summit’s final declaration of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO), dedicated to the 15^th anniversary of the organisation, the participating countries agreed to assist each other during economic crisis, and to continue in their joint efforts in fighting terrorism and extremism.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. In Vienna agreement, the major highlights were to cut the use of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) used in heating, refrigeration and air conditioning by amending the ozone-protection treaty that went into force in 1989 (Montreal Protocol). HFCs are used as a substitute for ozone-depleting chlorofluorocarbons, whose use was eliminated under the Montreal Protocol. Now, it is proposed to replace HFCs with more climate-friendly alternatives that could avoid a rise of 0.5 degree Celsius by the end of the century. This would keep countries on track to meet the goal agreed at the Paris climate summit in COP 21 to limit the global temperature rise to well below 2 degrees C.

Statement 1: It is incorrect. Under MEA's New Initiative by NRIs/PIOs, a Pilot Project Sevak is introduced for Access to Care for the Villages in India. It deals with Sanitation and Health, Education in Village communities through improved awareness and knowledge of Prevention/Management of Diseases and Health Promotion.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs has introduced a Pension and Life Insurance fund scheme called Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana (MGPSY) for the Overseas Indian workers having Emigration Check Required (ECR) passports. The objective of MGPSY is to encourage and enable the overseas Indian workers by giving government contribution to save for their Return and Resettlement (R&R), to save for their old age to obtain a Life Insurance cover against natural death during the period of coverage.
The government contribution available under the MGPSY is for a period of five years or till the return of subscribed worker back to India, whichever is earlier. Whereas the New Pension Scheme (NPS) is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
 

Statement 1: It is correct. Myanmar President U Htin Kyaw paid a decisive visit to India at the invitation of President Pranab Mukherjee from 27^th to 30^th August 2016. This was the first contact between the top leadership of the two countries. Four Agreements signed during President Kyaw’s visit related to improving connectivity between northeast India and ASEAN through Myanmar. The first is the India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway, which should have been completed and made functional by 2015. It is now expected to be completed only by 2020 since 69 bridges are yet to be constructed.
Statement 2: It is correct. The second feature of the agreement relates to the upgradation of the road segment between Kalewa and Yagyi. Early completion and operationalisation of the Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project by December 2016 was highlighted. 
Statement 3: It is correct. The MoU on Cooperation in the Field of Renewable Energy was also signed as part of agreement.
Statement 4: It is correct. During the visit MoU on Cooperation in the field of Traditional Systems of Medicine was signed.

Explanation: Defence Procurement Policy 2016 increases the participation of India’s private sector in military manufacturing. It has several recommendations for improving indigenous procurement. The DPP, the governing manual for all defence procurement, was part of a set of military reforms undertaken to address the many deficiencies noticed during the 1999 Kargil war. Since the first one in 2002, the DPP has been revised periodically. The new policy places the highest preference to a newly incorporated procurement class called ‘Buy Indian-IDDM’, with IDDM denoting Indigenous Designed Developed and Manufactured. This category refers to procurement from an Indian vendor, products that are indigenously designed, developed and manufactured with a minimum of 40 percent local content, or products having 60 percent indigenous content if not designed and developed within the country. 

The Geological Survey of India has set in motion an ambitious geo-chemical mapping project to identify reserves of Rare Earth’s and other strategic minerals across India. The project under Ministry of mines is going to cover India’s Obvious Geological Potential (OGP) area around 8 lakh sq km, in the next four-five years.

Between 22 and 25 August 2014, Russian artillery personnel what Russia called a "humanitarian convoy", crossed the border into Ukrainian territory without the permission of the Ukrainian government. Crossings occurred both in areas under the control of pro-Russian forces and areas that were not under their control, such as the South-Eastern part of Donetsk Oblast, near Novoazovsk. These events followed the reported shelling of Ukrainian positions from the Russian side of the border over the course of the preceding month. Head of the Security Service of Ukraine said that the events of 22 August were a "direct invasion by Russia of Ukraine". Western and Ukrainian officials described these events as a "stealth invasion" of Ukraine by Russia.

Representatives of Ukraine, the Russian Federation, the Donetsk People's Republic (DPR), and the Lugansk People's Republic (LPR) signed the Minsk Protocol, an agreement to halt the war in Donbass region of Ukraine, on 5^th September 2014. 

The War of a Thousand Days was a Colombian civil war between the Conservative Party, the Liberal Party and its radical factions that resulted in over 100,000 deaths, extensive property damage, and national economic ruin.