Odisha Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam (2011)

Comprehensive law quiz covering IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence Act, Constitution, Property Law, Limitation Act, Succession Acts, Specific Relief Act, and Contract Act for Odisha Judicial Service Examination

100 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which section deals with dowry death?

  1. 304-A of IPC
  2. 498-A of IPC
  3. 489-A of lRC
  4. 304-B of lPC
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

One of the remedies for false imprisonment is

  1. habeas corpus
  2. mandamus
  3. certiorari
  4. prohibition
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Article 39A of the Constitution of India deals with

  1. Free Legal Aid
  2. Free and Compulsory Education
  3. Free Housing to the Poor
  4. Free Medical Aid to the Citizens
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

'Every cftizen of India has a right to contest in elections unless disqualified' is

  1. an ordinary Civil Right
  2. an important Constitutional Right
  3. a Fundamental Right
  4. a Fundamental Duty
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The members of the UPSC are appointed by

  1. Cabinet
  2. Chief Justice of India
  3. Prime Minister of India
  4. President of India
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The oath is administered to the President of India by

  1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  2. Prime Minister of India
  3. Attorney General of India
  4. Chief Justice of India
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Grievous hurt means

  1. emasculation
  2. disfiguration
  3. any hurt which endangers life
  4. All of the above
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The distinction between sections 299 and 300 of I. P. C. was made clear by

  1. Marshall, J. in R. V. Govinda
  2. Melvill, J. in Govinda V. R.
  3. Melvill, J. in R. V. Govinda
  4. Marshall, J. in Govinda V. R.
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during Emergency is dealt in

  1. Article 352
  2. Article 355
  3. Article 358
  4. Article 361
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Whosoever by force compels or by any deceitful means induces any preson to go from any place performs

  1. abduction
  2. kidnapping
  3. slavery
  4. forced labour
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under the Indian Penal Code, abetment is constituted by

  1. instigating a person to commit an offence
  2. engaging in a conspiracy to commit an offence
  3. intentionally aiding a person to commit an offence
  4. All of the above
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Garnishee means

  1. Judgement Debtor
  2. Judgement Creditor
  3. Judgement Debtor’s Debtor
  4. Guarantor
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Movable property not in possession of the judgement debtor

  1. cannot be attached
  2. can be attached by actual seizure
  3. can be attached by an order prohibiting the person in possession thereof from giving it to the judgement debtor
  4. can be left in the custody of respectable person as custodian
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The special provisions to Finance Bills are provided under the Constitution of India in

  1. Article 114
  2. Article 115
  3. Article 116
  4. Article 117
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Actus curiae neminem gravabit means

  1. the act of court shall harm no one
  2. grave acts cannot be pardoned
  3. remedy must cure the act
  4. all acts cannot be sued in a Court
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Whoever obstructs any person, so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, performs

  1. wrongful confinement
  2. force
  3. wrongful restraint
  4. defamation
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Precept means

  1. command
  2. order
  3. writ
  4. All of the above
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A judgement debtor

  1. cannot be arrested
  2. can be arrested
  3. can be arrested and detained if certain conditions are fulfilled
  4. can be arrested and detained if certain conditions are fulfilled only in Civil Prison
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 75 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Public Documents
  2. Private Documents
  3. Certified Copies of Public Documents
  4. Proof of Other Official Documents
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following amendments accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?

  1. 44th Amendment
  2. 24th Amendment
  3. 39th Amendment
  4. 42nd Amendment
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Suo Motu means

  1. in the matter
  2. suit filed
  3. of its own motion
  4. small matter
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is made in the name of

  1. Constituent Assembly of Free India
  2. Constitution of India
  3. Indian Independence Act
  4. People of India
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Relevance of Admissions in Civil Cases
  2. Relevance of Oral Admissions as to Contents of Documents
  3. Relevance of Oral Admissions as to Contents of Electronic Records
  4. None of the above
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The term 'Admission' is defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in

  1. Section 17
  2. Section 18
  3. Section 19
  4. Section 20
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called a/an

  1. Answerable Question
  2. Convenient Question
  3. Suggestive Question
  4. Leading Question
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The term ‘Examination-in-Chief has been defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in

  1. Section 137
  2. Section 138
  3. Section 139
  4. Section 140
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A witness who is unable to speak is called

  1. Deaf Witness
  2. Dumb Witness
  3. Hostile Witness
  4. Unreliable Witness
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Estoppel
  2. Estoppel of Tenant
  3. Estoppel of Acceptor of Bill of Exchange, Bailee or Licensee
  4. Evidence as to Affairs of State
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘Actus me invito factus non est mens actus’ means

  1. an act itself does not make a man guitty unless his intentions were so
  2. an act done by me against my will is not my act at all
  3. the intent and the act both must concur to constitute crime
  4. None of the above
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A person who may be said to be of unsound mind is

  1. an idiot
  2. a mad man
  3. one who is drunk
  4. All of the above
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Robbery is an aggravated form of

  1. theft
  2. extortion
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. All of the above
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Code of Civil Procedure

  1. applies to whole of India
  2. applies to whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
  3. applies to the whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir and Nagaland
  4. applies to whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland and Tribal Areas
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Decision on question of limitation

  1. operates as res juclicata
  2. does not operate as res judicata
  3. operates as res judicata, if not
  4. None of the above
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Provisions as to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes are in

  1. Ninth Schedule
  2. Seventh Schedule
  3. Fifth Schedule
  4. Third Schedule
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 89 of the CPC was inserted in

  1. 1993
  2. 1998
  3. 1999
  4. 2009
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

When two or more persons by fighting in a public place disturb public peace, it is

  1. affray
  2. riot
  3. assault
  4. curfew
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For instituting a suit against the Government, notice should be given ______ before.

  1. 2 months
  2. 3 months
  3. 1 month
  4. 6 months
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

'Examination of a Witness by the Adverse Party' shall be called his

  1. Examination-in-Chief
  2. Cross-Examination
  3. Re-Examination
  4. Examination on Facts
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Court of a Magistrate of first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding

  1. 3 years
  2. 5 years
  3. 7 years
  4. 4 years
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under which section of CrPC can a person who is avoiding execution of a warrant be proclaimed absconder?

  1. Section 81
  2. Section 83
  3. Section 82
  4. Section 84
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under which section of CrPC can a police officer arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and without warrant?

  1. Section 42
  2. Section 40
  3. Section 51
  4. Section 41
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Power to search a place is provided under

  1. Section 45
  2. Section 46
  3. Section 47
  4. Section 48
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following processes compel the appearance of a person before the Criminal Court?

  1. Summons
  2. Warrants
  3. Attachment and sale of property
  4. All of the above
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The recording of the statements by a police officer during investigation is provided by

  1. Section 161(1)
  2. Section 161(2)
  3. Section 161(3)
  4. Section 162(1)
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Section 167, the Magistrate can order detention in

  1. police custody
  2. judicial custody
  3. jail
  4. any custody he thinks fit
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following sections does not provide for joinder of charges?

  1. Section 219
  2. Section 221
  3. Section 222
  4. Section 225
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Any dispute relating to possession of immovable property is decided by

  1. Judicial Magistrate
  2. Executive Magistrate
  3. Executive or Judicial Magistrate
  4. None of these
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which section is based on the maxim “Nemo debet bis vexari pro eadem causa”, i.e. a man shall not be twice vexed for one and the same cause?

  1. Section 300
  2. Section 301
  3. Section 302
  4. Section 303
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Chapter V of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Oral Evidence
  2. Documentary Evidence
  3. Burden of Proof
  4. Witnesses
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is transferable property?

  1. Actionable claim
  2. Pension
  3. Right of way
  4. Chance of legacy
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where mortgagee is entitled to enjoy the benefits of the mortgaged property in lieu of interest on debt, the mortgage is called

  1. Simple Mortgage
  2. Equitable Mortgage
  3. Usufructuary Mortgage
  4. English Mortgage
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consideration for lease is

  1. license
  2. price
  3. debt
  4. premium
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 62 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Primary Evidence
  2. Secondary Evidence
  3. Proof of Documents by Primary Evidence
  4. Cases in which Secondary Evidence relating to Documents may be given
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following duties is/are of the seller?

  1. To produce title deeds
  2. To disclose patent defects
  3. To execute conveyance
  4. All of the above
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 14 of the TP Act deals with

  1. Conditional Transfer
  2. Vested Interest
  3. Rule Against Perpetuity
  4. Restricted Covenant
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A person who projects himself to be the owner when he is not is called

  1. ostensible owner
  2. co-owner
  3. equitable owner
  4. None of the above
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The period of limitation for filing of a suit on the basis of a promissory note from the date of its execution is

  1. 1 year
  2. 2 years
  3. 3 years
  4. 6 years
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

What is the limitation period in a suit by a landlord to recover possession from a tenant after the date when the tenancy is determined?

  1. One year
  2. Three years
  3. Six years
  4. Twelve years
Question 59 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit

  1. concealments
  2. frauds
  3. mistakes
  4. All of the above
Question 60 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For a review of judgement by a Court other than the Supreme Court, from the date of the decree or order, the limitation is

  1. 1 year
  2. 3 years
  3. 30 days
  4. 12 years
Question 61 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘Time requisite’ under Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act means

  1. absolutely necessary time
  2. actual time taken
  3. maximum time
  4. minimum time
Question 62 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following amount(s) to presenting civil proceedings with ‘due diligence and in good faith’ within the meaning of Section 14 of the Limitation Act?

  1. Failure to pay the requisite court fee found deficient
  2. Error of judgement in valuing a suit
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Neither (1) nor (2)
Question 63 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The period of limitation for setting aside a sale on execution of a decree is

  1. 30 days
  2. 60 days
  3. 90 days
  4. 180 days
Question 64 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 17 of the Limitation Act does not take within its ambit

  1. an appeal
  2. an execution application
  3. a suit
  4. All of the above
Question 65 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The limitation period in a suit by a surety against a co-surety when the surety pays anything in excess of his own share is

  1. 1 year
  2. 3 years
  3. 6 years
  4. 12 years
Question 66 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In computing the period of limitation for an appeal, a review or revision, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree or the order appealed against shall be excluded under

  1. Section 11(1)
  2. Section 12(2)
  3. Section 13(3)
  4. Section 14(4)
Question 67 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘A’, who is governed by Indian Succession Act, executes an instrument purporting to his will, but he does not understand the nature of the instrument, nor the effect of its provision. This instrument is

  1. valid
  2. invalid
  3. voidable
  4. None of the above
Question 68 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a

  1. presumption of fact
  2. presumption of fact and law
  3. rebuttable presumption of law
  4. irrebuttable presumption of law
Question 69 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which of the following cases did the Court, by going negatively with women’s right to property, disqualify the daughter-in-law's right to father-in-law's property on the ground that the son had murdered his own father?

  1. Vallikannu Vs R. Sengaperumal, A. I. R. 2005
  2. Narashimha Murthy Vs Sushilabai, A. I. R. 1996
  3. Gurupad Vs Heerabai,A. I. R. 1978
  4. Shyama Devi Vs Manju Shukia (1 994) 6 S.C. C.
Question 70 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which section of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 treats agnates arid cognates and male and female heirs equally?

  1. Section 27(a)
  2. Section 27(b)
  3. Section 33-A
  4. Section 26
Question 71 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which section of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 is it provided that where a bequest is made to a person by a particular description, and there is no person in existence at the testator’s death who answers the description, the bequest is void?

  1. Section 111
  2. Section 112
  3. Section 114
  4. Section 116
Question 72 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Schedule V of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 deals with

  1. Form of Certificate
  2. Form of Caveat
  3. Form of Probate
  4. Form of Letters of Administration
Question 73 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to

  1. movable property
  2. immovable property
  3. movable and immovable property
  4. None of the above
Question 74 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A suit for possession under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed within

  1. 3 years
  2. 6 years
  3. 9 years
  4. 12 years
Question 75 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘A’, by his will, bequeaths to ‘B’ the sum of Rs. 5,000 and afterwards in the same will repeats the bequest in the same words. ‘B’ is entitled to

  1. one legacy of Rs. 5,000
  2. both legacies of Rs. 5,000
  3. Legacy becomes invalid
  4. None of the above
Question 76 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act fixes the time limit for discovery of mistake or fraud to be

  1. 6 months
  2. 3 months
  3. 1 year
  4. None of the above
Question 77 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under the Specific Relief Act, a suit for recovery of possession can be filed

  1. only in respect to movable property
  2. only in respect to immovable property
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above
Question 78 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A claim for damages in suit for injunction can be laid down

  1. under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act
  2. under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act
  3. under Section 40 of the Specific Relief Act
  4. under Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act
Question 79 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Obligation under Specific Relief Act

  1. is a right in rem
  2. is a right in personam
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above
Question 80 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act, 1930 provides for

  1. specific performance of a part of the contract
  2. defence respecting suits for relief based on contract
  3. specific performance of contracts connected with trusts
  4. circumstances in which specific performance of a contract is enforceable
Question 81 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under the Specific Relief Act, the declaratory decree can

  1. be declined
  2. not be declined
  3. be commuted
  4. be withheld
Question 82 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can be invoked

  1. against a person who has possession or control over the property
  2. against the person who is the owner of the article claimed
  3. by the person not entitled to the possession of the article
  4. in respect of the ordinary article
Question 83 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, the Court can

  1. adjudicate on the title
  2. direct the defendant(s) to remove the structure
  3. permit the plaintiff to pull down the structure
  4. None of the above
Question 84 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Section 12(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, part performance of a contract can be enforced by

  1. promisor
  2. promisee
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above
Question 85 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The term ‘donatio mortis causa’ refers to

  1. deathbed gift
  2. actionable claims
  3. universal donee
  4. None of the above
Question 86 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Right of redemption arises in the case of

  1. gifts
  2. mortgage
  3. lease
  4. exchange
Question 87 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a doctrine of equity?

  1. Doctrine of redemption
  2. Doctrine of consolidation
  3. Doctrine of lis pendens
  4. Doctrine of marshalling
Question 88 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following deals with the doctrine of election?

  1. Section 45
  2. Section 15
  3. Section 53-A
  4. Section 35
Question 89 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

To convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be

  1. absolute and qualified
  2. absolute and unqualified
  3. unusual and reasonable
  4. usual and qualified
Question 90 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Contracts of adhesion are

  1. unfair contracts
  2. unlawful contracts
  3. contracts of adults
  4. standard form contracts
Question 91 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. The agreement is

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. illegal
  4. unnatural
Question 92 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A contract of guarantee may be

  1. oral
  2. written
  3. oral or written
  4. None of the above
Question 93 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If goods are bailed for hire, the bailor is responsible for damages for the faults in the bailed goods, which

  1. he is aware of
  2. he is not aware of
  3. he is aware and unaware of
  4. he is reasonably aware of
Question 94 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If the promisor absolutely repudiates the contract prior to the promised date of performance, it is

  1. frustration
  2. impossibility of performance
  3. final breach
  4. anticipatory breach
Question 95 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If a person is employed by and acting under the control of the original agent in the business of agency, he is known as

  1. sub-agent
  2. substituted agent
  3. del-credere agent
  4. merchantile agent
Question 96 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A contracts to pay B Rs. 20,000 if B’s house is burnt. It is a

  1. wagering contract
  2. quasi contract
  3. contingent contract
  4. illegal contract
Question 97 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

To create an agency,

  1. consideration is necessary
  2. consideration is not necessary
  3. some consideration is necessary
  4. adequate consideration is necessary
Question 98 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Every agreement, of which the object or consideration is unlawful, is

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. illegal
  4. unfair
Question 99 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Heir’ has been defined under

  1. Section 3(d) of the Hindu Succession Act
  2. Section 3(e) of the Hindu Succession Act
  3. Section 3(f) of the Hindu Succession Act
  4. Section 3(g) of the Hindu Succession Act
Question 100 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2005 came into effect on

  1. 9th June, 2005
  2. 9th August, 2005
  3. 9th July, 2005
  4. 9th September, 2005