Odisha Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam (2011)
Comprehensive law quiz covering IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence Act, Constitution, Property Law, Limitation Act, Succession Acts, Specific Relief Act, and Contract Act for Odisha Judicial Service Examination
Questions
Which section deals with dowry death?
- 304-A of IPC
- 498-A of IPC
- 489-A of lRC
- 304-B of lPC
One of the remedies for false imprisonment is
- habeas corpus
- mandamus
- certiorari
- prohibition
Article 39A of the Constitution of India deals with
- Free Legal Aid
- Free and Compulsory Education
- Free Housing to the Poor
- Free Medical Aid to the Citizens
'Every cftizen of India has a right to contest in elections unless disqualified' is
- an ordinary Civil Right
- an important Constitutional Right
- a Fundamental Right
- a Fundamental Duty
The members of the UPSC are appointed by
- Cabinet
- Chief Justice of India
- Prime Minister of India
- President of India
The oath is administered to the President of India by
- Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- Prime Minister of India
- Attorney General of India
- Chief Justice of India
Grievous hurt means
- emasculation
- disfiguration
- any hurt which endangers life
- All of the above
The distinction between sections 299 and 300 of I. P. C. was made clear by
- Marshall, J. in R. V. Govinda
- Melvill, J. in Govinda V. R.
- Melvill, J. in R. V. Govinda
- Marshall, J. in Govinda V. R.
Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during Emergency is dealt in
- Article 352
- Article 355
- Article 358
- Article 361
Whosoever by force compels or by any deceitful means induces any preson to go from any place performs
- abduction
- kidnapping
- slavery
- forced labour
Under the Indian Penal Code, abetment is constituted by
- instigating a person to commit an offence
- engaging in a conspiracy to commit an offence
- intentionally aiding a person to commit an offence
- All of the above
Garnishee means
- Judgement Debtor
- Judgement Creditor
- Judgement Debtor’s Debtor
- Guarantor
Movable property not in possession of the judgement debtor
- cannot be attached
- can be attached by actual seizure
- can be attached by an order prohibiting the person in possession thereof from giving it to the judgement debtor
- can be left in the custody of respectable person as custodian
The special provisions to Finance Bills are provided under the Constitution of India in
- Article 114
- Article 115
- Article 116
- Article 117
Actus curiae neminem gravabit means
- the act of court shall harm no one
- grave acts cannot be pardoned
- remedy must cure the act
- all acts cannot be sued in a Court
Whoever obstructs any person, so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, performs
- wrongful confinement
- force
- wrongful restraint
- defamation
Precept means
- command
- order
- writ
- All of the above
A judgement debtor
- cannot be arrested
- can be arrested
- can be arrested and detained if certain conditions are fulfilled
- can be arrested and detained if certain conditions are fulfilled only in Civil Prison
Section 75 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
- Public Documents
- Private Documents
- Certified Copies of Public Documents
- Proof of Other Official Documents
Which of the following amendments accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
- 44th Amendment
- 24th Amendment
- 39th Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
Suo Motu means
- in the matter
- suit filed
- of its own motion
- small matter
The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is made in the name of
- Constituent Assembly of Free India
- Constitution of India
- Indian Independence Act
- People of India
Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
- Relevance of Admissions in Civil Cases
- Relevance of Oral Admissions as to Contents of Documents
- Relevance of Oral Admissions as to Contents of Electronic Records
- None of the above
The term 'Admission' is defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
- Section 17
- Section 18
- Section 19
- Section 20
According to Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called a/an
- Answerable Question
- Convenient Question
- Suggestive Question
- Leading Question
The term ‘Examination-in-Chief has been defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
- Section 137
- Section 138
- Section 139
- Section 140
A witness who is unable to speak is called
- Deaf Witness
- Dumb Witness
- Hostile Witness
- Unreliable Witness
Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
- Estoppel
- Estoppel of Tenant
- Estoppel of Acceptor of Bill of Exchange, Bailee or Licensee
- Evidence as to Affairs of State
‘Actus me invito factus non est mens actus’ means
- an act itself does not make a man guitty unless his intentions were so
- an act done by me against my will is not my act at all
- the intent and the act both must concur to constitute crime
- None of the above
A person who may be said to be of unsound mind is
- an idiot
- a mad man
- one who is drunk
- All of the above
Robbery is an aggravated form of
- theft
- extortion
- Both (1) and (2)
- All of the above
The Code of Civil Procedure
- applies to whole of India
- applies to whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
- applies to the whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir and Nagaland
- applies to whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland and Tribal Areas
Decision on question of limitation
- operates as res juclicata
- does not operate as res judicata
- operates as res judicata, if not
- None of the above
Provisions as to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes are in
- Ninth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
- Fifth Schedule
- Third Schedule
Section 89 of the CPC was inserted in
- 1993
- 1998
- 1999
- 2009
When two or more persons by fighting in a public place disturb public peace, it is
- affray
- riot
- assault
- curfew
For instituting a suit against the Government, notice should be given ______ before.
- 2 months
- 3 months
- 1 month
- 6 months
'Examination of a Witness by the Adverse Party' shall be called his
- Examination-in-Chief
- Cross-Examination
- Re-Examination
- Examination on Facts
The Court of a Magistrate of first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding
- 3 years
- 5 years
- 7 years
- 4 years
Under which section of CrPC can a person who is avoiding execution of a warrant be proclaimed absconder?
- Section 81
- Section 83
- Section 82
- Section 84
Under which section of CrPC can a police officer arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and without warrant?
- Section 42
- Section 40
- Section 51
- Section 41
Power to search a place is provided under
- Section 45
- Section 46
- Section 47
- Section 48
Which of the following processes compel the appearance of a person before the Criminal Court?
- Summons
- Warrants
- Attachment and sale of property
- All of the above
The recording of the statements by a police officer during investigation is provided by
- Section 161(1)
- Section 161(2)
- Section 161(3)
- Section 162(1)
Under Section 167, the Magistrate can order detention in
- police custody
- judicial custody
- jail
- any custody he thinks fit
Which of the following sections does not provide for joinder of charges?
- Section 219
- Section 221
- Section 222
- Section 225
Any dispute relating to possession of immovable property is decided by
- Judicial Magistrate
- Executive Magistrate
- Executive or Judicial Magistrate
- None of these
Which section is based on the maxim “Nemo debet bis vexari pro eadem causa”, i.e. a man shall not be twice vexed for one and the same cause?
- Section 300
- Section 301
- Section 302
- Section 303
Chapter V of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
- Oral Evidence
- Documentary Evidence
- Burden of Proof
- Witnesses
Which of the following is transferable property?
- Actionable claim
- Pension
- Right of way
- Chance of legacy
Where mortgagee is entitled to enjoy the benefits of the mortgaged property in lieu of interest on debt, the mortgage is called
- Simple Mortgage
- Equitable Mortgage
- Usufructuary Mortgage
- English Mortgage
Consideration for lease is
- license
- price
- debt
- premium
Section 62 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
- Primary Evidence
- Secondary Evidence
- Proof of Documents by Primary Evidence
- Cases in which Secondary Evidence relating to Documents may be given
Which of the following duties is/are of the seller?
- To produce title deeds
- To disclose patent defects
- To execute conveyance
- All of the above
Section 14 of the TP Act deals with
- Conditional Transfer
- Vested Interest
- Rule Against Perpetuity
- Restricted Covenant
A person who projects himself to be the owner when he is not is called
- ostensible owner
- co-owner
- equitable owner
- None of the above
The period of limitation for filing of a suit on the basis of a promissory note from the date of its execution is
- 1 year
- 2 years
- 3 years
- 6 years
What is the limitation period in a suit by a landlord to recover possession from a tenant after the date when the tenancy is determined?
- One year
- Three years
- Six years
- Twelve years
Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit
- concealments
- frauds
- mistakes
- All of the above
For a review of judgement by a Court other than the Supreme Court, from the date of the decree or order, the limitation is
- 1 year
- 3 years
- 30 days
- 12 years
‘Time requisite’ under Section 12(2) of the Limitation Act means
- absolutely necessary time
- actual time taken
- maximum time
- minimum time
Which of the following amount(s) to presenting civil proceedings with ‘due diligence and in good faith’ within the meaning of Section 14 of the Limitation Act?
- Failure to pay the requisite court fee found deficient
- Error of judgement in valuing a suit
- Both (1) and (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
The period of limitation for setting aside a sale on execution of a decree is
- 30 days
- 60 days
- 90 days
- 180 days
Section 17 of the Limitation Act does not take within its ambit
- an appeal
- an execution application
- a suit
- All of the above
The limitation period in a suit by a surety against a co-surety when the surety pays anything in excess of his own share is
- 1 year
- 3 years
- 6 years
- 12 years
In computing the period of limitation for an appeal, a review or revision, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree or the order appealed against shall be excluded under
- Section 11(1)
- Section 12(2)
- Section 13(3)
- Section 14(4)
‘A’, who is governed by Indian Succession Act, executes an instrument purporting to his will, but he does not understand the nature of the instrument, nor the effect of its provision. This instrument is
- valid
- invalid
- voidable
- None of the above
Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a
- presumption of fact
- presumption of fact and law
- rebuttable presumption of law
- irrebuttable presumption of law
In which of the following cases did the Court, by going negatively with women’s right to property, disqualify the daughter-in-law's right to father-in-law's property on the ground that the son had murdered his own father?
- Vallikannu Vs R. Sengaperumal, A. I. R. 2005
- Narashimha Murthy Vs Sushilabai, A. I. R. 1996
- Gurupad Vs Heerabai,A. I. R. 1978
- Shyama Devi Vs Manju Shukia (1 994) 6 S.C. C.
Which section of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 treats agnates arid cognates and male and female heirs equally?
- Section 27(a)
- Section 27(b)
- Section 33-A
- Section 26
In which section of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 is it provided that where a bequest is made to a person by a particular description, and there is no person in existence at the testator’s death who answers the description, the bequest is void?
- Section 111
- Section 112
- Section 114
- Section 116
Schedule V of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 deals with
- Form of Certificate
- Form of Caveat
- Form of Probate
- Form of Letters of Administration
Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to
- movable property
- immovable property
- movable and immovable property
- None of the above
A suit for possession under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed within
- 3 years
- 6 years
- 9 years
- 12 years
‘A’, by his will, bequeaths to ‘B’ the sum of Rs. 5,000 and afterwards in the same will repeats the bequest in the same words. ‘B’ is entitled to
- one legacy of Rs. 5,000
- both legacies of Rs. 5,000
- Legacy becomes invalid
- None of the above
Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act fixes the time limit for discovery of mistake or fraud to be
- 6 months
- 3 months
- 1 year
- None of the above
Under the Specific Relief Act, a suit for recovery of possession can be filed
- only in respect to movable property
- only in respect to immovable property
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of the above
A claim for damages in suit for injunction can be laid down
- under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act
- under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act
- under Section 40 of the Specific Relief Act
- under Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act
Obligation under Specific Relief Act
- is a right in rem
- is a right in personam
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of the above
Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act, 1930 provides for
- specific performance of a part of the contract
- defence respecting suits for relief based on contract
- specific performance of contracts connected with trusts
- circumstances in which specific performance of a contract is enforceable
Under the Specific Relief Act, the declaratory decree can
- be declined
- not be declined
- be commuted
- be withheld
Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can be invoked
- against a person who has possession or control over the property
- against the person who is the owner of the article claimed
- by the person not entitled to the possession of the article
- in respect of the ordinary article
In a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, the Court can
- adjudicate on the title
- direct the defendant(s) to remove the structure
- permit the plaintiff to pull down the structure
- None of the above
Under Section 12(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, part performance of a contract can be enforced by
- promisor
- promisee
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of the above
The term ‘donatio mortis causa’ refers to
- deathbed gift
- actionable claims
- universal donee
- None of the above
Right of redemption arises in the case of
- gifts
- mortgage
- lease
- exchange
Which of the following is a doctrine of equity?
- Doctrine of redemption
- Doctrine of consolidation
- Doctrine of lis pendens
- Doctrine of marshalling
Which of the following deals with the doctrine of election?
- Section 45
- Section 15
- Section 53-A
- Section 35
To convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be
- absolute and qualified
- absolute and unqualified
- unusual and reasonable
- usual and qualified
Contracts of adhesion are
- unfair contracts
- unlawful contracts
- contracts of adults
- standard form contracts
A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. The agreement is
- void
- voidable
- illegal
- unnatural
A contract of guarantee may be
- oral
- written
- oral or written
- None of the above
If goods are bailed for hire, the bailor is responsible for damages for the faults in the bailed goods, which
- he is aware of
- he is not aware of
- he is aware and unaware of
- he is reasonably aware of
If the promisor absolutely repudiates the contract prior to the promised date of performance, it is
- frustration
- impossibility of performance
- final breach
- anticipatory breach
If a person is employed by and acting under the control of the original agent in the business of agency, he is known as
- sub-agent
- substituted agent
- del-credere agent
- merchantile agent
A contracts to pay B Rs. 20,000 if B’s house is burnt. It is a
- wagering contract
- quasi contract
- contingent contract
- illegal contract
To create an agency,
- consideration is necessary
- consideration is not necessary
- some consideration is necessary
- adequate consideration is necessary
Every agreement, of which the object or consideration is unlawful, is
- void
- voidable
- illegal
- unfair
Heir’ has been defined under
- Section 3(d) of the Hindu Succession Act
- Section 3(e) of the Hindu Succession Act
- Section 3(f) of the Hindu Succession Act
- Section 3(g) of the Hindu Succession Act
Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2005 came into effect on
- 9th June, 2005
- 9th August, 2005
- 9th July, 2005
- 9th September, 2005