Odisha Judicial Service (Prelims) Exam 2006

Odisha Judicial Service (Prelims) Exam 2006, Previous 2006 paper judicial services

120 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The statement “There is no distinction between public and private law” is attributed to

  1. Thering
  2. Ehrlich
  3. Duguit
  4. Spencer
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“Jurisprudence is the formal science of those relations of mankind which are generally recognised as having legal consequences and as such is the formal science of positive law.” Jurisprudence has been defined above by

  1. Salmond
  2. Austin
  3. Julius Stone
  4. Holland
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Kelsen’s theory of law is called pure theory of law because Kelsen

  1. purely discussed jurisprudence only
  2. defined law in accordance with morality and purity
  3. separated law from religion, ethics, sociology and history
  4. discussed law purely in terms of justice
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“Law as such is found and not made. It is to be found in popular faith, common convictions, customs, traits, habits and traditions which in course of time grow into legal rules.”

This concept of law was propounded by

  1. Savigny
  2. Thibaut
  3. Henry Maine
  4. Salmond
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘Positive Law’ is called positive because it is

  1. followed by everybody
  2. made by a person in authority
  3. made as a result of divine providence
  4. made as a result of collective effort
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Realist theory of Gierke is also known by the name of

  1. purpose theory
  2. bracket theory
  3. organic theory
  4. concession theory
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“All theories on the subject of punishment have more or less broken down and we are at sea as to first principle of punishment.” It was so observed by

  1. Sir Henry Maine
  2. Blackstone
  3. St. Stephens
  4. Taylor
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of “Social Engineering” which means

  1. greatest happiness to greatest number of people
  2. balancing of competing interests in society
  3. changes in the concepts and functions of the State
  4. that law has its source in the general consciousness
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“Fear is an emotion that plays a paramount part in every human being’s life. If a man knows that violation of laws will render him to suffer, he by instinct fears to commit it.” The above statement supports

  1. retributive theory of punishment
  2. expiatory theory of punishment
  3. reformative theory of punishment
  4. deterrent theory of punishment
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following four types of legal doctrines:

  1. Volksgeist
  2. Imperative theory of law
  3. Social engineering
  4. Social solidarity

Identify the correct chronological order of their appearance:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. 2, 1, 4 and 3
  3. 3, 4, 1 and 2
  4. 2, 1, 3 and 4
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements regarding Natural Law and choose the correct option:

  1. The central notion of natural law is the existence of objective moral principle.
  2. These principles are discovered by reference to legal sources as the Constitution, Codes and so on.
  3. These principles are discovered as the essential nature of man.
  1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
  2. 1 and 2 are correct.
  3. 2 and 3 are correct.
  4. 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“To open a school is to close a prison.” The above dictum is of

  1. Salmond
  2. Roscoe Pound
  3. Victor Hugo
  4. Ferry
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to Jurists of Analytical School,

  1. custom becomes law after its recognition by the sovereign
  2. custom never becomes law
  3. custom is a law from the very inception of it
  4. customs are only positive morality even after recognition
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“Custom, as a source of law, comprises legal rules which have neither been promulgated by legislation nor formulated by professionally trained judges, but arises from popular opinion and is sanctioned by long usage.”

Who amongst the following defined custom as above?

  1. Henry Maine
  2. Comte
  3. Carter
  4. Vino Gradoff
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following is not the correct attribute of ownership?

  1. Right to sell the property
  2. Right to mere occupancy
  3. Right to residual use of the property
  4. Right to make a gift of the property
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The statement “Precedents are the past decisions which are used as guide in the moulding of future decisions”, is attributed to

  1. Keeton
  2. Gray
  3. Oppenheim
  4. None of the above
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“The pleasure of vengeance calls to mind sermon’s riddle. It was sweet coming out of terrible, it is the honey dropping from the lion’s mouth.” It was so observed by

  1. Aschenffenburg
  2. Bentham
  3. Gillin
  4. Kenny
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following could be considered as the advantages of legislation over precedent?

  1. Abrogative power
  2. Foreknowledge
  3. Prospective application
  4. Systematic arrangement

Select the correct answer, using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Find out according to whom, there are four classes of absolute duties, viz. duties to self, duty to indeterminate person, duty to the sovereign and duty to one who is not a human being.

  1. Salmond
  2. Pollock
  3. Austin
  4. Duguit
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The nature of the Indian constitution is

  1. federal
  2. unitary
  3. quasi-federal
  4. None of the above
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The preamble to the Constitution secures to all citizens

  1. liberty of thought, expression and worship
  2. liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
  3. liberty of thought, expression, faith and worship
  4. liberty of thought, expression, belief and faith
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The words ‘Socialist Secular’ have been inserted in the preamble by the

  1. forty-fourth Amendment
  2. forty-second Amendment
  3. forty-first Amendment
  4. fortieth Amendment
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The President of India shall hold office

  1. for a term of five years from the date of declaration of the result
  2. for a term of five years from the date the post has fallen vacant
  3. for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office
  4. for a term of five years from the date he is administered oath of his office
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which one of the following cases has the court applied the doctrine of “lifting the veil” to determine distinct personality of a corporation?

  1. Salomon V. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
  2. Young V. Hitchens
  3. Johnson V. Kennedy
  4. Brookland V. Metropolitan Corporation
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The directive to the state for formulating its economic policy is provided under

  1. Art. 37
  2. Art. 39 (b)
  3. Art. 39 (c)
  4. Art. 43 A
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Article 323 is related to

  1. Expenses of Public Service Commissions
  2. Reports of Public Service Commissions
  3. Functions of Public Service Commissions
  4. None of the above
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995

  1. provides for consequential seniority in matters of promotion in favour of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes
  2. provides for keeping unfilled vacancies of a year reserved for SC/ST candidates separate from the vacancies of succeeding years, for determining the ceiling of fifty percent
  3. permits the state to show any favour to any class of persons
  4. prohibits discrimination against the access to shops, public restaurants and place of public entertainment
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Chairman of a State Public Service Commission is appointed by the

  1. Chief Minister
  2. Prime Minister
  3. President
  4. Governor
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An amendment of the Constitution may be initiated in

  1. Council of States
  2. House of People
  3. Either 1 or 2
  4. None of the above
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Article 355 of the Constitution of India provides for

  1. distribution of revenue during the emergency promulgated under Article 352 of the Constitution
  2. duty of the Union to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbances
  3. the power of Parliament to legislate on matters not enumerated under Union list
  4. None of the above
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

To seek the services of a legal practitioner of one's own choice is guaranteed as a fundamental right under

  1. Article 21 A
  2. Article 22 (1)
  3. Article 39 A
  4. Article 32 (4)
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Any charge for impeachment of the President may be preferred

  1. only in the Lok Sabha
  2. only in the Rajya Sabha
  3. only in a joint session of Parliament
  4. by either House of Parliament
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The salary of a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India may be reduced

  1. by the President of India
  2. if it is approved by Parliament with special majority
  3. if it is approved by the Chief Justice of India
  4. if a proclamation of financial emergency is in operation
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In Air India V. Nargesh Meerza (1981) 4SCC 335, the termination of air hostesses on the ground of pregnancy within four years was held to be

  1. violative of the Constitution in being unreasonable and arbitrary as it compelled the air hostesses not to have any children
  2. valid as it not only improved the health of the employee but also helped in boosting up of our family planning programme
  3. valid as otherwise the Corporation would have to incur huge expenditure in recruiting additional air hostesses either on a temporary or <font size="2">an </font>ad-hoc basis
  4. None of the above
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘The preamble is a part of the Constitution’ was held in

  1. A. K. Gopalan V. State of Madras
  2. Berubari Union case
  3. Keshavanand Bharti V. State of Kerala
  4. None of the above
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The fundamental duties are confined to

  1. citizens
  2. juristic persons
  3. all persons
  4. None of the above
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission may be removed from his office

  1. by the Government of India
  2. when a unanimous resolution for the removal is passed by the members of the Commission
  3. by the order of the President of India, where the Supreme Court to whom reference was made after conducting the inquiry, reports that the Chairman should be removed
  4. None of the above
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements relating to the basis of International Law is true?

  1. International Law is law because states regard it as law.
  2. International Law is not a true law.
  3. International Law is a mere positive morality.
  4. The true basis of International Law is coercion.
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements reflects the true definition of International Law?

  1. International Law is a body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilised states in their relations with one another.
  2. International Law is the form of rules accepted by civilised states as determining their conduct towards each other and towards each other's subjects.
  3. International Law is the standard of conduct at a given time for the states and other entities thereto.
  4. International Law consists of body of rules which regulate the conduct of the states in their intercourse with each other.
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Governor of a state under the Constitution of India is empowered to act without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers and acts in his own discretion under

  1. Article 164 (1B)
  2. Article 162
  3. Article 163 (1)
  4. None of the above
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following theories is being followed in India in respect of International Law?

  1. Specific adoption theory
  2. Monism
  3. Dualism
  4. Delegation theory
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of

  1. 60 years
  2. 62 years
  3. 65 years
  4. 58 years
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following sources of International Law does not find mention in Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice?

  1. General principles of law recognized by civilised States
  2. Decisions or determinations of the organs of International Institutions
  3. Decisions of Judicial or Arbitral Tribunals and juristic works
  4. International customs
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements relating to Monism is true?

  1. International obligations and municipal rules are not the facets of the same phenomenon.
  2. International obligations and municipal rules derive ultimately from one basic norm.
  3. International Law and Municipal Law are two separate systems.
  4. International Law and Municipal Law are unified branches of knowledge, where the former is applied to states, and the latter is applied to individuals.
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978

  1. provides that during emergency, the right to move to the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights except articles 20 and 21 is suspended of the Constitution
  2. provides that the President can authorize the expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State
  3. permits, during emergency (under Article 352), the State Legislative Assemblies to legislate on Railways
  4. allows the administration of Scheduled and Tribal areas
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are considered as a subsidiary means of determination of law, under International Law in its settlement of disputes?

  1. General principles of law recognized by civilised States
  2. International customs
  3. International conventions
  4. Teachings of most highly qualified publicists
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements relating to the recognition of States is not true?

  1. A State is recognised when it possesses essential elements of statehood.
  2. Recognition of a State means that it has been included as a member of International Community.
  3. Recognition of a State is purely a legal act.
  4. There is no difference between recognition of State and recognition of Government.
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements relating to ‘custom’ as a source of International Law is correct?

  1. A practice, in order to be recognized as ‘custom’, should be universal in practice.
  2. A customary practice is not customary law unless opinio juris is present.
  3. A custom is required to be ancient and immemorial.
  4. <font size="2">A </font>custom should be complete in uniformity.
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following Articles of the UN Charter embodies the principle of self-determination as one of the purposes of United Nations?

  1. Article 1(1)
  2. Article 1(2)
  3. Article 1(4)
  4. Article 1(3)
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a consequence of non-recognition of a State?

  1. A recognised state cannot sue in the courts of non-recognis<font size="2">ing </font>state.
  2. An unrecognised state cannot sue in the courts of non-recognising state.
  3. A recognised state can sue in the courts of any state, whether recognised or not.
  4. An unrecognised state cannot sue in the courts of states recognised by UN.
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice, which is the correct order of the sources of International Law?

  1. Customs, International conventions, General principles of law recognized by civilised States, Judicial decisions and Juristic opinions
  2. International conventions, General principles of law recognized civilised States, Judicial decisions and Juristic opinions
  3. International conventions, Customs, General principles of law recognized by civilised States, Judicial decisions and Juristic opinions
  4. International conventions, Judicial decisions and Juristic works, Customs, General principles of law recognized by civilised States
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements relating to succession of state is true?

  1. Both the Civil and Criminal Laws of the former state continue until changed by the successor state.
  2. Only Civil Laws continue until changed by the successor state.
  3. Only Criminal Laws continue until changed by the successor state.
  4. Neither Civil nor Criminal Laws will continue.
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The principle of ‘continuity of state’ means

  1. The change in the government of a state does not affect its legal personality of the state.
  2. The new government will not succeed to any of the rights and obligations of the predecessor state.
  3. The new government will succeed to certain rights but to no obligations.
  4. The new government will succeed only to the debt obligations of the predecessor state.
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to the provisions of the UN Charter, the primary responsibility for the maintenance of International Peace and Security rests with

  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council
  3. Both <font size="2">1 and 2</font>
  4. Security Council and International Court of Justice
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements relating to the binding nature of the resolutions of Security Council is ‘true’?

  1. Only the resolutions of Security Council passed under Chapter VII of the Charter are binding, rest are not.
  2. As per Article 25 of the Charter, the resolutions of the Security Council are partly binding and partly recommendatory.
  3. As per Article 25 of the Charter, all the resolutions passed by the Security Council under the UN Charter are binding on the part of the states.
  4. As per Article 25 of the Charter, the resolutions passed by the Security Council are only recommendatory in nature and not binding on the states.
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the Human Rights under the UN Charter?

  1. Human Rights are natural and inalienable.
  2. The existence of Human Rights is independent of positive law.
  3. Human Rights are well<font size="2">-</font>defined under the provisions of the UN Charter.
  4. The UN has the duty to promote universal respect and the observance of Human Rights and fundamental freedoms for all without distinction.
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following Human Rights is not expressly provided for in the UDHR, 1948?

  1. Right to life, liberty and security of persons
  2. Right to own property
  3. Right of people to self<font size="2">-</font>determination
  4. Abolition of slavery and slave<font size="2">-</font>like practices
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following is an essential component of the law of tort?

  1. Breach of a right
  2. Specific restitution of property
  3. Injunction
  4. Breach of duty
Question 59 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements relating to the principle of ‘Non-Intervention’ proclaimed under Article 2(7) of the UN Charter is true?

  1. Non-Intervention in domestic matters of a state is an absolute principle.
  2. Even the UN Charter does not authorise the UN to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of a state.
  3. The UN cannot interfere in the domestic matters of a state with its express consent.
  4. The UN is competent to intervene, in domestic matters of a state, where the provisions of Charter and rules of International Law permit it.
Question 60 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following Human Rights is considered as the third generation of Human Rights?

  1. Right to social security
  2. Right to development
  3. Right to own property
  4. Right to work
Question 61 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A master M employed a car mechanic S to repair cars. S repaired the plaintiff’s car and drove it for a short distance to check whether the repair was proper. In the process, S caused an accident and injured the plaintiff P. M is

  1. not liable as S was not authorised to drive the car
  2. liable for negligence of S
  3. not liable as S’s act was outside his course of employment
  4. liable as S’s act is necessarily incidental to the nature of his duties
Question 62 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In law of tort, duty is

  1. primarily fixed by the law
  2. ordinarily fixed by the law
  3. naturally fixed by the law
  4. definitely fixed by the law
Question 63 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following rights is not included in the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)?

  1. To have access to agriculture credit and loans
  2. To enjoy adequate living conditions
  3. To have access to adequate health care facilities
  4. To participate in promoting international peace and co-operation
Question 64 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following does not constitute course of employment?

  1. The servant’s act is expressly authorised by the master.
  2. The servant is doing something for the benefit of the master.
  3. The servant’s act is implicitly authorised by the master.
  4. The servant is doing the authorised act in an unauthorised manner.
Question 65 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the neighbour principle?

  1. One must take reasonable care towards persons who are near him.
  2. There is no general duty to act positively for the benefit of others.
  3. Consumer items are beyond the purview of the neighbour principle.
  4. Neighbour is a person who is in physical proximity to the defendant.
Question 66 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In the tort of defamation,

  1. there may not be a loss of reputation
  2. someone is ridiculed
  3. hatred is generated
  4. there is a loss of reputation
Question 67 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In law of tort, a person should be called upon to pay for damage caused by his

  1. directions
  2. instructions
  3. capability
  4. fault
Question 68 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following is not an essential element of the tort of conspiracy?

  1. Purpose
  2. Overt act
  3. Concerted action
  4. Intention
Question 69 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A plaintiff has no remedy under strict liability if

  1. the defendant is negligent
  2. there is an escape of a dangerous thing
  3. the plaintiff does not default
  4. the defendant has no statutory authority
Question 70 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

X and Y searching for a gas leak applied a naked light to a gas pipe in turns. Y’s act caused an explosion resulting in damage. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Y alone is liable as his act caused the damage.
  2. X is vicariously liable for Y’s act.
  3. X and Y are both liable independently.
  4. X and Y are both liable as joint tort-feasors.
Question 71 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Persons are said to be joint tort-feasors when their separate shares in the commission of the tort are done in furtherance of a common

  1. intention
  2. interest
  3. design
  4. object
Question 72 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Employees of a municipality opened a street manhole to correct underground faults. Since they could not complete the work the same day, they covered the manhole by canvass and surrounded the same by warning lamps. In the evening, a child of eight years of age came on to the scene and started playing with the lamp when he stumbled and fell into the manhole sustaining burn injuries. The municipality is

  1. not liable as they acted reasonably
  2. liable because a known source of danger caused damage through unforseeable sequence of events
  3. not liable as injury to the child is not foreseeable
  4. liable because they should have completed their work before leaving
Question 73 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In the tort of conspiracy, it is necessary to

  1. form an agreement
  2. cause damage
  3. do an illegal act
  4. do a legal act
Question 74 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following is a remedy in an action for nuisance in tort?

  1. Private defence
  2. Habeas corpus
  3. Abatement
  4. Specific restitution of property
Question 75 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A private action lies in public nuisance when the damage caused is

  1. direct
  2. substantial
  3. consequential
  4. special
Question 76 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the defence of fair comment in tort of defamation?

  1. The matter commented on must be of public interest.
  2. The comment must be an assertion of fact.
  3. The comment must be true.
  4. The comment must not be malicious.
  5. The comment must be an expression of opinion.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 4 and 5
  3. 2, 3 and 5
  4. 2, 4 and 5
Question 77 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A is sleeping in his room at night when B locks his door from outside. B unlocks and opens the door before A gets up in the morning. B is

  1. liable for defamation in tort because he can boast that he had locked A
  2. liable for false imprisonment because B has caused total restraint to A
  3. not liable for defamation in tort because A did not know that he remained locked in the night
  4. not liable for false imprisonment because A did not know that he remained locked in the night
Question 78 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A unlawfully locks B in a room. B has a duplicate key in his pocket by which he can open the door from inside and come out. But B forgets about the key and, as a result, remains locked for two hours. B then remembers that he has a duplicate key and opens the door and comes out. A is

  1. liable for false imprisonment because he acted unlawfully
  2. not liable for false imprisonment because B had a duplicate key by which he could have opened the door and come out
  3. liable for false imprisonment because B had forgotten that he had a duplicate key
  4. not liable because B’s forgetfulness was responsible for B remaining in the room
Question 79 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Malicious prosecution is a tort against

  1. police excesses
  2. damaging the dignity of a person
  3. abuse of legal procedure
  4. violation of personal liberty
Question 80 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mens rea implies

  1. intention
  2. knowledge
  3. motive
  4. a guilty mind
Question 81 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following is not an essential element of the tort of malicious prosecution?

  1. Damage caused to the plaintiff
  2. Absence of reasonable and probable cause
  3. Termination of the case in favour of the plaintiff
  4. Prosecution of the defendant by the plaintiff
Question 82 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A, with the intention of marrying a lady B during the life time of his wife X, enters into a wedlock with B. Unknown to A, X had died in an accident just a few hours before the marriage. Here A is liable for

  1. bigamy
  2. attempt to bigamy
  3. preparation to commit bigamy
  4. no offence
Question 83 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mens rea on the part of the accused is

  1. necessary in all the crimes
  2. not necessary at all
  3. necessary unless excluded expressly or by necessary implication
  4. not required to be proved by the prosecution
Question 84 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A was under voluntary intoxication when he killed B. The prosecution could not establish that A was capable of formulating the intention to kill. Here, A is guilty of

  1. murder
  2. culpable homicide not amounting to murder
  3. causing death by a rash or negligent act
  4. no offence
Question 85 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For determining liability of several persons with the help of Section 34, it is required that these persons should

  1. share the same intention
  2. have the same intention
  3. have the common object
  4. have the same knowledge
Question 86 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A keeps his wife B locked up in a room without food for several days with intention to bring about her death. One day, B escapes from the lock-up and is at verge of collapse when taken to hospital by the villagers. B, however, recovers fully after the treatment. Here,

  1. A is not liable for attempt to murder as he has not done the last act necessary for the commission of the crime
  2. A is not liable for attempt to murder as he still has locus paenitentiae
  3. A is liable for attempt as he has intention to cause death and has done acts towards the commission of the crime which clearly indicate his intention
  4. A is not liable for attempt to murder and is liable for causing bodily harm to the woman
Question 87 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A joins a gang of dacoits by reason of a threat of being beaten. He is compelled later on by the decoits to break open the door of a house to facilitate dacoity in which an inmate of the house is killed. Here,

  1. A will not be liable for any offence as he joined the gang under threat of being beaten
  2. A will be liable only for breaking open the door
  3. A will be jointly liable for murder along with other dacoits as he joined the gang under a threat which was short of instant death
  4. A will not be liable for murder as he was standing outside the house and did not know as to what was happening inside the house
Question 88 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

X, servant of a household, agrees with A and B to keep the door of the house open during night to facilitate theft. In accordance with the agreement, X keeps the door open but A and B do not turn up. Here, the offence committed is

  1. attempt
  2. abetment by conspiracy
  3. abetment by instigation
  4. no offence
Question 89 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. Abetment of an abetment is also an offence.
  2. To constitute the offence of abetment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.
  3. It is not necessary that the person abetted should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
  4. An abettor cannot be held liable for abetment if the abetted person is not liable.
Question 90 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A, B, C, D and E allegedly entered the house of X with the common object of taking forcible possession of the house. A, who was carrying a pistol within the knowledge of others, shot X dead in order to take possession. E was acquitted as it could not be proved beyond reasonable doubt that E was present in the assembly. Here,

  1. B, C and D are jointly liable for murder along with A on the basis of Section 149
  2. A, B, C and D are jointly liable for murder on the basis of Section 34
  3. A, B, C and D are liable for constituting an unlawful assembly
  4. A alone is liable for murder and others are not liable for any offence
Question 91 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A and B agreed to cause the death of X by poisoning. B, in persuance of the agreement, went to a chemist C’s shop and told him the purpose for which the poison was required. C provided B the poison. The accused were caught before the poison could be administered to X. Here,

  1. A and B are liable for criminal conspiracy but C is not liable
  2. A, B and C are all liable for criminal conspiracy
  3. A, B and C are liable for attempt to murder
  4. A, B and C are not guilty of any offence
Question 92 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An agreement between two or more persons is required for criminal conspiracy under Section 120-A. Which of the following statements is correct in this context?

  1. The agreement must be to do an illegal act by illegal means.
  2. The agreement must be to do an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means.
  3. The agreement must be to commit an offence.
  4. An overt act apart from the agreement is required.
Question 93 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A speech is punishable as sedition if it

  1. simply excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government
  2. strongly criticises the measures undertaken by the government
  3. is intended or has a tendency to create disorder or disturbance of public peace by resort to violence
  4. advocates boycott of multinational corporations and their products
Question 94 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is required as an essential ingredient of ‘sedition’?

  1. Mala fide intention
  2. <font size="2">I</font>ntention to disturb the government established by law
  3. Intention to overthrow the government by resort to violent means
  4. Intention to bring or attempt to bring into hatred the government established by law
Question 95 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

On being informed that six persons armed with deadly weapons are coming to loot their house, the inmates of the house fled away in fear of being killed. The accused entered the house and took away the property without use of any violence. The offence committed was

  1. theft
  2. dacoity
  3. attempt to dacoity
  4. robbery
Question 96 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The act of the accused causing death amounts to murder if the act is done

  1. with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death
  2. with the knowledge that the act is likely to cause death
  3. with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of that person
  4. with the intention of causing a simple hurt
Question 97 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Extortion becomes robbery when

  1. force is used in taking away the property
  2. committed by more than one person
  3. property is delivered under the fear of instant death
  4. property is delivered under the fear of an injury
Question 98 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The act of the accused amounts to culpable homicide not amounting to murder if it falls under

(1) any one of the Clauses of Section 299
(2) any one of the Clauses of Section 299 but does not fall under any one of the four Clauses of Section 300
(3) any one of the exceptions to Section 300

  1. Only (1)
  2. Both (1) and (3)
  3. Both (2) and (3)
  4. Only (3)
Question 99 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A finds a five-hundred rupee currency note near his office. A is guilty of criminal misappropriation if he

  1. puts the currency note in his pocket
  2. puts a notice on office notice board and waits for reasonable time before using the money
  3. purchases eatables with the money as he is hungry and has no money
  4. gives the money for charity after waiting for some time allowing the owner to claim the money
Question 100 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An employer deducts an amount from the salary of an employee as Provident Fund but fails to deposit the amount in the Provident Fund account of the employee. The offence committed by the employer is

  1. cheating
  2. theft
  3. criminal misappropriation
  4. criminal breach of trust
Question 101 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A master asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at less than the market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on the grounds of

  1. coercion
  2. fraud
  3. undue influence
  4. mistake
Question 102 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If both the parties to a contract believe in the existence of a subject which in fact does not exist, the agreement would be

  1. unenforceable
  2. void
  3. voidable
  4. None of these
Question 103 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which country does not recognise a past consideration?

  1. England
  2. America
  3. India
  4. Germany
Question 104 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

When the damages cannot be assessed, the party may be awarded by the court

  1. actual damages
  2. liquidated damages
  3. exemplary damages
  4. nominal damages
Question 105 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“V” places an order with “S” for the supply of 20 sewing machines. “S” could not supply these in time. “V” loses a profitable contract due to this and claims his loss of profit from “S”. But “V” does not succeed as the nature of damage is

  1. foreseeable
  2. remote
  3. ordinary
  4. <font size="2">s</font>pecial
Question 106 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following conditions must be satisfied for making claim under “necessaries” supplied to a person incapable of contracting?

  1. The articles supplied should be necessaries.
  2. The articles supplied should be necessary at the time of sale and delivery.
  3. Necessaries must have been supplied gratituously out of mere kindness.
  4. Necessaries should be supplied out to a person incompetent to contract.
Question 107 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“B” accepts the proposal of “A” by posting a letter of acceptance to “A”. The above acceptance

  1. cannot be revoked by “B” as he has already accepted the offer and dropped the letter of acceptance
  2. can be revoked by “B” before the letter of acceptance reaches “A”
  3. can be revoked by “B” as soon as the letter of acceptance reaches “A”
  4. can be revoked by “B” at any time after the letter of acceptance reaches “A”
Question 108 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In case of conflict of jurisdiction of the courts, the incidence of a contract shall be governed by the law of the place where the

  1. contract is made
  2. contract is performed
  3. <font size="2">a</font>cceptor resides
  4. proposer resides
Question 109 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a Court of Law

  1. when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum returns for a promise
  2. when the promisor performs his promise
  3. when the fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of contract is pleaded
  4. <font size="2">a</font>lways at the discretion of the Court
Question 110 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The principle behind the doctrine of pan delicto is that where each party is equally at fault, the law favours the party who actually is

  1. not in possession
  2. in possession
  3. injured and helpless
  4. owner of the things concerned
Question 111 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A quantum meruit claim might arise in the situations some of which are contractual and others quasi-contractual. The plaintiff entered into an agreement to work for a periodical and as per the agreement, he was to receive a lumpsum amount on completion of his work. When the plaintiff had written part of the work, the defendant had already abandoned the project. The plaintiff was held entitled to sue for the work already done because the plaintiff’s claim was

  1. contractual
  2. tortous
  3. quasi-contractual
  4. partly contractual and partly tortous
Question 112 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A standard form of contract is the one in which

  1. the terms are fixed by the government of the state to which the contracting party belongs
  2. the terms are pre-determined by the custom of the trade to which the contracting parties belong
  3. the terms on which mercantile transactions of common occurrence are to be carried out
  4. the terms are fixed by one of the parties in advance and one open to acceptance by any one
Question 113 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements with regard to “Uberrima fides:

  1. It falls within a class of cases which require utmost good faith.
  2. Every contract is a contract, “Uberrima tides”.
  3. Contract of insurance is an example of “Uberrima fides”.
  1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
  2. 1 and 3 are correct.
  3. 2 and 3 are correct.
  4. 1 and 2 are correct.
Question 114 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following is a contingent contract?

  1. “A” insures his factory against damage or destruction by fire.
  2. “A” sells his property subject to the condition that the property will be reconveyed to him on repayment of price with interest.
  3. A guard is appointed at a swimming pooi for the sole purpose of rescuing drowning persons.
  4. A borrower solemnly promises to pay off the tender when the borrower will be in funds.
Question 115 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The plaintiff sees the defendant's child falling in water. He saves the child from drowning. Later the defendant promises to give him Rs. 1000. In this context, which one of the following propositions is correct?

  1. The defendant's liability is statutory.
  2. The defendant's liability arises in quasi-contract.
  3. The defendant is not liable as there is no contract.
  4. The defendant is liable because the agreement is not “nudum pactum”.
Question 116 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A property worth Rs. 25,000 was agreed to be sold by “X” for Rs. 8,000. However, X’s mother moves for setting aside the agreement on the proof that “X” is a congenital “idiot”. In this context, which one of the following is correct?

  1. The mother will not succeed.
  2. The mother will succeed.
  3. The mother is bound to execute the agreement.
  4. The “idiot” can avoid the agreement.
Question 117 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following constitutes an offer in a self-service store?

  1. Display of goods at the store window
  2. When the customer asks for some goods
  3. There is no offer in such a case
  4. Picking up an article and approaching the cashier’s desk for payment
Question 118 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Liquidated damages are essentially the

  1. payment of money stipulated as warning to the offending party
  2. payment of compensation determined by court
  3. compensation arbitrarily determined by aggrieved party
  4. genuine covenanted pre-estimate of damages
Question 119 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The communication of acceptance through telephone is regarded as complete when

  1. acceptance is spoken on phone
  2. acceptance comes to the knowledge of party proposing
  3. acceptance is put in course of transmission
  4. acceptor has done whatever is required to be done by him
Question 120 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The defence of “non est factum” is available to the contracting party who has committed mistake as to the

  1. nature of contract
  2. identity of the contracting party
  3. quality of the promise made by other contracting party
  4. quality of the subject<font size="2"> </font>matter of the contract