Odisha Judicial Service Examination (Prelims) - 2013

Odisha Judicial Service Exam – Preliminary 2013

100 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which Fundamental Right is available to all persons?

  1. Right to form union
  2. Protection of life and personal liberty
  3. Right to assemble peacefully
  4. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy?

  1. Right to education
  2. Right to die
  3. Right to move to Supreme Court
  4. To organise village panchayats
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

  1. Uniform civil code
  2. Organisation of village panchayats
  3. Right to education
  4. Free legal aid
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?

  1. To protect sovereignty
  2. To defend the country
  3. To respect National Anthem
  4. To promote Indian culture
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which Fundamental Right is available to citizens only?

  1. Right to equality
  2. Protection against arrest and detention
  3. Freedom of speech and expression
  4. Protection of life and personal liberty
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which case was the doctrine of prospective overruling evolved by the Supreme Court?

  1. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
  2. I. C. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
  3. Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan
  4. Keshava Nand Rharti vs. State of Kerala
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Set-off can be

  1. legal set-off
  2. equitable set-off
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. Either (a) or (b)
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit

  1. for partition
  2. of partnership
  3. for possession and mesne profit
  4. All of the above
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following cases is related to constitutionality of ‘right to die’?

  1. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
  2. Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab
  3. A. K. Gopalan vs. Union of India
  4. Kharak Singh vs. State of U. R.
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under section 100 CPC, a second appeal lies to the

  1. Supreme Court
  2. High Court
  3. Tribunal
  4. Court of District Judge
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Remedies available against an ex-parte decree include

  1. appeal
  2. review
  3. application for setting aside ex-parte decree
  4. application
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Pecuniary jurisdiction of the court has been dealt with in

  1. Section 2 of CPC
  2. Section 6 of CPC
  3. Section 9 of CPC
  4. Section 15 of CPC
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa means

  1. it is in the interest of state that there should be an end to litigation
  2. a judicial decision must be accepted as correct
  3. no one shall be vexed twice for one and the same cause of action
  4. where there is a right, there is a remedy
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In execution of decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be attached to the extent of

  1. one fourth
  2. one third
  3. two third
  4. one half
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which article of the Indian Constitution is related to doctrine of self incrimination?

  1. Article 20(1)
  2. Article 22
  3. Article 20(3)
  4. Article 20(2)
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is not a state under Article 12 of the Constitution?

  1. Berhampur University Student Union
  2. C. S. I. R.
  3. Municipal Corporation, Bhubaneshwar
  4. Union Public Service Commission
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following doctrines is not related to Article 13 of the Constitution?

  1. Doctrine of eclipse
  2. Doctrine of colourable legislation
  3. Doctrine of waiver
  4. Doctrine of severability
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 304 of CrPC deals with

  1. protection to accused against double prosecution for the same offence
  2. withdrawl from prosecution
  3. legal aid to the accused at state's expense
  4. order to release on probation of good conduct
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which Section of the CrPC provides that a person once convicted or acquitted cannot be tried again for the same offence?

  1. Section 304
  2. Section 300
  3. Section 321
  4. Section 302
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Section 39 of CrPC every person has to give information to Magistrate or Police Officer about the commission of an offence punishable under

  1. Sections 121 to 126 of IPC
  2. Sections 489A to 489E of IPC
  3. Sections 302 and 304 of IPC
  4. All of the above
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Section 416 of CrPC, the High Court can postpone capital sentence on

  1. unsound person
  2. old person
  3. pregnant woman
  4. politician
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If an indigent person’s suit abates on the death of the plaintiff, under Order XXXlll Rule 11A of CPC, the fee payable on plaint shall be recoverable from

  1. the estate of deceased plaintiff
  2. the defendant
  3. the State Government
  4. Either (1) or (2) or (3)
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Section 366 of CrPC, the sentence of death is to be submitted by Court of Session for confirmation by

  1. High Court
  2. Governor
  3. Supreme Court
  4. President
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who is/are given protection from arrest under Section 45 of CrPC?

  1. Members of Armed Forces
  2. Judicial Officers
  3. President of India
  4. Members of Parliament
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Doctrine of Estoppel
  2. Presumption as to the Commission of a Crime
  3. Presumption as to Dowry Death
  4. Presumption as to Abetment of Suicide by a Married Woman
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Section 354 of CrPC, the language and content of the judgment

  1. shall be written in the language of the Court
  2. shall contain the point or points for determination, the decision thereon and the reasons for the decision
  3. shall specify the offence of which and the Section of the IPC or other law under which the accused is convicted
  4. All of the above
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A witness who is unable to speak is called

  1. Dumb Witness
  2. Deaf Witness
  3. Unreliable Witness
  4. Hostile Witness
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called

  1. answerable question
  2. convenient question
  3. suggestive question
  4. leading question
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when an accused says that he did not make confession, it is called

  1. Extra - Judicial Confession
  2. Judicial Confession
  3. Retracted Confession
  4. Retracted Extra - Judicial Confession
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Opinion of an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

  1. is sometimes a conclusive proof and sometimes an inconclusive proof
  2. is corroborative in nature
  3. is supportive in nature
  4. is corroborative as well as supportive in nature
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Conduct
  2. Motive
  3. Preparation
  4. All of the above
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 75 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Public Documents
  2. Certified Copies of Public Documents
  3. Proof of Other Official Documents
  4. Private Documents
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 47A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Relevance of Opinion Relating to Electronic Signatures
  2. Relevance of Opinion Relating to Existence of Right or Custom
  3. Relevance of Opinion Relating to Usages and Tenets
  4. Relevance of Opinion Relationship
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 125 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

  1. Information as to Commission of Offences
  2. Confidential Communications
  3. Official Communications
  4. Professional Communications
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘Qui facit per alium per se’ is the essence of which of the following principles of criminal liability?

  1. Joint criminal liability
  2. Vicarious liability
  3. Corporate criminal liability
  4. Strict liability
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 377 of IPC provides for

  1. robbery
  2. public nuisance
  3. theft
  4. unnatural offences
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which case did the Supreme Court of India strike down mandatory death penalty under Section 303 of IRC as unconstitutional?

  1. Machhi Singh vs. State of Punjab
  2. Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab
  3. Santa Singh vs. State of Punjab
  4. Mithu vs. State of Punjab
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to _________, “a crime is a violation of public rights and duties due to the whole community”.

  1. Sir William Blackstone
  2. Prof. Glanville Williams
  3. Sir Kenny
  4. Sir Russell
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Court of Magistrate First Class may pass a sentence for maximum term of imprisonment awardable in a summary trial of

  1. 3 months
  2. 1 year
  3. 2 years
  4. 6 years
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 115 of CPC applies only when

  1. there is error of law
  2. there is error of fact
  3. there is jurisdictional error
  4. there is erroneous decision
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“They also serve who only stand and wait.” This observation formed part of the judgement of the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?

  1. Nanda Rasool vs. State of Bihar
  2. Ramnath vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
  3. Ramashish Yadav vs. State of Bihar
  4. Pandurang vs. State of Hyderabad
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The two-judge bench of Supreme Court in which of the following cases held that long delay by the President of India or Govenror of State in disposing mercy petitions from the convicted person under Anti-Terrorism laws or similar status can’t be ground for communication of death penalty into life imprisonment?

  1. Shersingh vs. State of Punjab (1983)
  2. People Union for Democratic Rights vs. Union of India (2013)
  3. Trivenibin vs. State of Punjab (1989)
  4. Jagmohan Singh vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (1973)
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Crimes which do not require intention, recklessness or even negligence as to one or more elements in the actus reus are known as

  1. vicarious liability
  2. strict liability
  3. act of God
  4. force majeure
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The term ‘Admission’ is defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in

  1. Section 20
  2. Section 19
  3. Section 18
  4. Section 17
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 304B in Chapter XVI of IPC deals with

  1. Rape
  2. Cruelty
  3. Dowry death
  4. Insult to modesty of woman
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to the Supreme Court, if a particular offence carries mandatory sentence of imprisonment, a company

  1. cannot be prosecuted for such offence
  2. can be convicted, however can’t be imprisoned
  3. can be convicted and can be fined
  4. can be convicted and directors can be imprisoned
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Subject of limitation is dealt within __________ of the Constitution.

  1. Entry 12, List Il
  2. Entry 12, List III
  3. Entry 13, List ll
  4. Entry 13, List Ill
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The intention of Law of Limitation is

  1. not to give a right where there is none
  2. to interpose a bar after a certain period to a suit to enforce an existing right
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Warrant case means a case

  1. in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
  2. in which the court in first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the accused
  3. relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years
  4. relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or for a term exceeding two years
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases held that the general principle of criminal jurisdiction is that jurisdiction is determined by the locality of the offence irrespective of the nationality or any other similar attributes of the offender?

  1. State of Bombay vs. L. Apte
  2. State of Bombay vs. Kathikala Oghad
  3. State of Maharashtra vs. M. H. George
  4. Mubarak Ali vs. State of Bombay
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For an account and a share of profits of a dissolved partnership, the period of limitation is __________ from the date of dissolution.

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 12 years
  4. 30 years
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the right to access and use of light or air, way, watercourse, use of water, or any other easement which has been peaceably enjoyed without interruption for _______ if the property belongs to government, shall be absolute and indefeasible.

  1. 20 years
  2. 30 years
  3. 12 years
  4. 3 years
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The extension of a prescribed period in certain cases on sufficient cause of being shown for the delay under Section 5 of the Limitation Act is known as

  1. doctrine of extension
  2. doctrine of condonation
  3. doctrine of sufficient cause
  4. All of the above
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 89 CPC provides for

  1. settlement of dispute by High Court only
  2. settlement of dispute by Supreme Court or High Court
  3. settlement of dispute through Village Panchayat
  4. settlement of dispute outside the Court
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

______ under CrPC is for ‘Order for maintenance of wives, children and parents’.

  1. Section 135
  2. Section 125
  3. Section 145
  4. Section 124
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the period of limitation to file an appeal to a High Court from decree or order is _________ from the date of decree or order.

  1. 30 days
  2. 60 days
  3. 90 days
  4. 3 years
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Limitation Act, 1963 came into force on

  1. 1st January, 1964
  2. 5th October, 1963
  3. 1st January, 1963
  4. 1st October, 1963
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Choose the right answer.

(i) The Law of Limitation bars the remedy in a court of law only when period of limitation has expired.
(ii) The Law of Limitation does not extinguish the right that it cannot be enforced by judicial process.
(iii) If a claim is satisfied outside the court of law after the expiry of period of limitation, that is not illegal.
(iv) If a claim is satisfied outside the court of law after the expiry of period of limitation, that is illegal.

  1. (i), (ii), (iii)
  2. (ii) and (iv)
  3. (ii), (iii), (iv)
  4. None of the above
Question 59 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The specific performance of a contract shall be sought within __________ from the date fixed for the performance or if no such date is fixed, when the plaintiff has noticed that performance is refused.

  1. 1 year
  2. 3 years
  3. 12 years
  4. 20 years
Question 60 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Continuous running of time refers to

  1. where once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make application stops it
  2. where once time has begun to run, subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make application stops it
  3. where once time has begun to run, subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make application stops it, provided the court grants leave
  4. where once time has begun to run, subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make application stops it, provided there is bonafide cause in view of the court
Question 61 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘A’ transferred a land to ‘B’ with a condition that if B sold it, he must sell it to ‘C’ and nobody else. The condition is

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. legal
  4. voidable at the option of ‘C’
Question 62 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘Nemo dat quod non habet’ means

  1. one can transfer what he doesn’t possess
  2. possession is nine points in law
  3. transfer without consideration is invalid
  4. one cannot transfer what he doesn’t possess
Question 63 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A suit to obtain a decree that a mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortagaged property is called a suit for

  1. part performance
  2. election
  3. foreclosure
  4. estoppel
Question 64 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act contains the doctrine of

  1. lis pendens
  2. part performance
  3. feeding the grant by estoppel
  4. notice
Question 65 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is not correct in the context of transfer of property?

  1. It means an act by which a living person conveys property.
  2. He conveys property in present or in future.
  3. He conveys to one or more other living persons.
  4. He cannot transfer property to himself and one or more other living persons.
Question 66 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A mortgage by deposit of title deed is called

  1. anomalous mortgage
  2. English mortgage
  3. equitable mortgage
  4. usufructuary mortgage
Question 67 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For the purpose of making a gift of immovable property, the transfer must be effected by

  1. delivery of possession
  2. registered instrument signed by or on the behalf of the donor and duly attested
  3. simple instrument
  4. simple instrument accompanied by delivery of possession
Question 68 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is not an essential requirement for a gift made by a Mohammedan?

  1. Declaration of the gift by the donor
  2. Acceptance of the gift by the donee
  3. Delivery of possession to the donee
  4. The gift must be effected through a registered instrument
Question 69 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A lease of immovable property from year to year can be made by

  1. oral agreement
  2. oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
  3. simple instrument
  4. only a registered instrument
Question 70 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

M. C. Chako vs. State Bank of Travancore, AIR 1970 SC 504 case is related to

  1. Breach of Contract
  2. Privity of Contract in India
  3. Restitution
  4. None of the above
Question 71 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Hadley V. Baxendale is related to

  1. Quasi Contract
  2. Contingent Contract
  3. Damages for Breach of Contract
  4. None of the above
Question 72 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“Past consideration is no consideration.” This statement is

  1. correct under Indian Law of Contract
  2. correct under English Law of Contract
  3. correct both under Indian and English Laws of Contract
  4. Not correct under both Indian and English Laws of Contract
Question 73 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An offer made to the public at large is called

  1. valid offer
  2. specific offer
  3. general offer
  4. None of the above
Question 74 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Commissioner of Wealth Tax, Mysore vs. Vijayaba Dowger Maharani Saheb, Bhavnagar and Others, AIR 1970 SC case is related to

  1. general damages
  2. special damages
  3. wagering agreement
  4. contingent contract
Question 75 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A continuing guarantee may be revoked

  1. by notice to the creditor
  2. by surity’s death
  3. by both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above
Question 76 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

On which date did the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 come into force?

  1. 17th May
  2. 17th June
  3. 17th July
  4. 17th April
Question 77 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Hindu Succession Act does not have territorial jurisdiction over

  1. Hindus of Jammu and Kashmir
  2. Hindus of Goa, Daman and Diu
  3. Hindus of Renocants of Pondicherry
  4. Hindus of all the above areas
Question 78 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A Hindu female W dies and is survived be by her husband H, one son S, two revoked: unmarried daughters Dl and D2. How will the property of W be divided?

  1. Into four equal parts
  2. 1/2 to husband and remaining 1/2 to son and daughters
  3. 1/2 to son and remaining 1/2 to husband and daughters
  4. 1/3 to husband,1 1/3 to son and remaining 1/3 to daughters
Question 79 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A dies intestate and is survived by a son of predeceased half-blood brother S and a daughter of a full-blood predeceased sister D. How will S and D succeed the property?

  1. D will get entire property.
  2. S will get entire property.
  3. D and S both will get equal property.
  4. D will get 3/4th share and S will get 1/4th share.
Question 80 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The term ‘Codicil’ under Indian Succession Act relates to instruments made in relation to

  1. intestate
  2. probate
  3. will
  4. gift
Question 81 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following cannot be a ground for disqualification under Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

  1. Mental infirmity
  2. Physical defects
  3. Conversion to other religion
  4. Diseases
Question 82 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A legacy is bequeathed to A on condition that he shall marry with the consent of B, C and D. A marries with F without consent but obtains consent afterwards. The legacy is

  1. valid as A has fulfilled the condition of vesting legacy
  2. not valid as A has not fulfilled the condition of vesting legacy
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. The condition is void ab-initio, hence no question of challenging legacy.
Question 83 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The degree of kindred are computed under Indian Succession Act in the manner set forth in the table of kindred set out in

  1. Schedule 2
  2. Schedule 1
  3. Schedule 3
  4. Schedule 4
Question 84 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A person taking no benefit directly under a will but deriving a benefit under it indirectly is not put to his election, has been provided under which section of Indian Succession Act?

  1. Section 185
  2. Section 186
  3. Section 187
  4. Section 184
Question 85 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A relief against parties and persons claiming under them by subsequent title for specific performance of a contract may be enforced under

  1. Section 12
  2. Section 19
  3. Section 18
  4. Section 8
Question 86 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A deceased has made a specific bequest of part of his property. The executor not having assented to the bequest sells the subject of it. The sale is

  1. valid
  2. void
  3. voidable
  4. voidable at the discretion of executor only
Question 87 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where a person is in settled possession of property, even on the assumption that he had no right to remain on the property, he cannot be dispossessed by the owner. This relief is available in the Specific Relief Act under

  1. Section 6
  2. Section 11
  3. Section 9
  4. Section 8
Question 88 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, the essential conditions under which cancellation of an instrument may be ordered are

  1. that the written instrument is void or voidable against the plaintiff
  2. that the plaintiff has reasonable apprehension of serious injury from the instrument is left outstanding
  3. that in view of the circumstances, the court considers it as reasonable and necessary to cancel the document
  4. All of the above
Question 89 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a simple suit for specific performance of contract for sale, a person who is not a party to the Agreement for Sale is neither a necessary nor proper party. The exemptions available under Specific Relief Act are

  1. cases of novatio
  2. interest arising out of prior contracts
  3. where it is necessary to join parties for avoiding multiplicity of proceedings
  4. All of the above
Question 90 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The display of articles in a showroom indicating their prices amounts to

  1. offer
  2. counter offer
  3. invitation to an offer
  4. mere advertisement
Question 91 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Injunction can be granted under Specific Relief Act for

  1. protection of intellectual properties
  2. a wife can restrain her husband from contracting a second marriage
  3. passing-off and like action
  4. All of the above
Question 92 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A person who is entitled to possession of specific immovable property may recover it by suit filed under the provisions of the Civil Procedure Code. This relief is provided in Specific Relief Act under

  1. Section 11
  2. Section 4
  3. Section 5
  4. Section 9
Question 93 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Any person having the possession or control over an article of movable property, of which he is not the owner, may be compelled to deliver it to the person entitled to the immediate possession

  1. when the possession of the thing claimed has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff
  2. when the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above
Question 94 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following sections under Specific Relief Act deals with Specific Performance with variation?

  1. Section 18
  2. Section 19
  3. Section 20
  4. Section 21
Question 95 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

To obtain a mandatory injunction under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, the plaintiff must show that there has been a breach of obligation in the nature of

  1. legal obligation
  2. where it is necessary to maintain status quo
  3. None of the above
  4. Both (1) and (2)
Question 96 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where an instrument is evidence of different rights or different obligations, the Court may, in a proper case, cancel it in part and allow it to stand for the residue. This provision is provided in the Specific Relief Act under

  1. Section 21
  2. Section 32
  3. Section 42
  4. Section 40
Question 97 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

‘A’ saves ‘B’ from drowning in a river. ‘B’ promises to pay ‘A’ Rs. 10,000 for this kind act. The contract is

  1. void for want of consideration
  2. voidable
  3. unenforceable because it is immoral
  4. enforceable as it covered by execptions to consideration
Question 98 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a contract of ‘Indemnity’ is defined in Section

  1. 126
  2. 127
  3. 128
  4. 124
Question 99 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following does not render a contract void after it has been made?

  1. Commercial impossibility
  2. Physical impossibility
  3. Legal impossibility
  4. Practical impossibility
Question 100 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is not an actionable claim?

  1. A claim to mesne profits
  2. A claim for arrears of rent
  3. A claim for return of earnest money
  4. A claim to money under insurance policy