Odisha Judicial Service Examination (Prelims) - 2014
Odisha Judicial Service Preliminary Examination - 2014 covering Constitutional Law, Civil Procedure Code, Criminal Procedure Code, Indian Evidence Act, Indian Penal Code, Limitation Act, Transfer of Property Act, Hindu Succession Act, Indian Succession Act, Specific Relief Act, and Contract Act
Questions
The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 inserted under Art. 19 (1)(c) concerned
- associations
- unions
- organisations
- co-operative societies
Indian Constitution was enacted and adopted on
- 26th January, 1950
- 26th November, 1949
- 15th August, 1947
- 14th August, 1947
The case of Jaya Bachchan v Union of India relates to
- territorial constituencies
- membership in Rajya Sabha
- office of profit
- dissolution of Lok Sabha
The Supreme Court of India permitted passive euthanasia subject to certain guidelines in the case of
- Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaugh v. Union of India
- Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
- P. Rathinam v. Union of India
- Maruti Sripati Dubal v. State of Maharashtra
New states are formed under Art. 3 of the Constitution by
- a law of the Parliament
- Constitutional amendment under Art. 368
- a law of the State Legislature concerned
- a law of the State Legislature concerned and law of Parliament
Art. 123 deals with
- power of the President to dissolve Lok Sabha
- power of the Governor to promulgate ordinances
- power of the President to promulgate ordinances
- power of the Parliament to pass bills
Removal or suspension of a member of Public Service Commission shall be done in accordance with
- Art. 316
- Art. 317
- Art. 350
- Art. 351
Provision for imposing the President’s rule in case of failure of constitutional machinery in the states is provided under
- Art. 353
- Art. 360
- Art. 352
- Art. 356
Debts between a plaintiff and defendant, one debt may be settled against another, can be a statutory defence to a plaintiff’s action and is called
- cross-claim
- set-off
- cross-demand
- cross-decree
According to Art. 233, the appointment of a district judge shall be done by
- President in consultation with the High Court of the state concerned
- Governor of the state concerned in consultation with the High Court of the state concerned
- Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
- Collegium of the High Court
Existence of two suits, by parties litigating under same title, one previously instituted which is pending at present and the other filed later, wherein a matter in issue in the subsequently filed suit is directly and substantially in issue in the other and the relief claimed in the subsequent suit can effectively be passed by the court of previous instance. Which section of CPC decides the fate of the subsequently filed suit and its proceeding?
- S. 11
- S. 9
- S. 10
- S. 12
Doctrine of pith and substance relates to
- interpretation of statutes to solve the problem of competing legislature in the same field
- serve the objectionable portions of the statute that violates Fundamental Rights
- interpretation of statutes to solve problems arising out of territorial nexus
- interpretation of statutes to solve problems of waiver of Fundamental Rights
Name the three pillars on which the foundation of every order of injunction rests.
- Prima facie case, injury with damage and balance of inconvenience
- Prima facie case, reparable injury and balance of convenience
- Prima facie case, irreparable injury and balance of convenience
- Prima fade case, damage without injury and balance of convenience
An attachment before judgement order takes away
- right to ownership
- right to file suit
- power to alienate property
- capacity of execution of a decree
Where a party to a suit requires information as to facts from the opposite party, it may administer to its adversary a series of questions. It is called
- question petition
- question pamphlet
- interrogatory
- discovery
______ is a suit filed by or against one or more persons on behalf of themselves and others having the same interest in the suit.
- Joint suit
- Representative suit
- Collusive suit
- Collective suit
_______ is to enable subordinate courts to obtain in non-appealable cases the opinion of the High Court in the absence of a question of law and thereby avoid the commission of an error which cannot be remedied later on.
- Review
- Reference
- Appeal
- Revision
A person appointed by the court to protect, preserve and manage a property during the pendency of litigation is called
- amicus curiae
- preserver
- protector
- receiver
What is the objective of investigation?
- To collect evidence that aids the court in finding out the truth
- To collect information that helps in punishing a person
- To collect information to arrest a person
- None of these
A, a railway company, is in possession of goods as a consignee. It does not claim any interest in the goods except lien of wharfage, demurrage and freight, but rival claims have been made by B and C adversely to each other. A can institute
- an application to decide the same
- an interpleader suit
- a friendly suit
- None of these
Which of the following propositions is/are correct?
(I) Legal set off requires a court fee, but no court-fee is required in the case of an equitable set off.
(ii) In a legal set off, amount claimed can be time barred and in an equitable set off, claim cannot be allowed if it is time barred.
(iii) In a legal set off, it is not necessary that cross demands arise out of same transaction and in an equitable set off, cross demands must arise out of the same transaction.
(iv) Legal set off can be for any amount not ascertained and an equitable set off may be allowed only for an unascertained amount.
- Only (i) is correct
- Only (i) and (iii) are correct
- Both (i) and (iv) are correct
- None of these
______ shall establish a Court of Session for every sessions division.
- State Government
- Central Government
- Supreme Court
- President of India
Under Section 37 of CrPC, every person is bound to assist a magistrate or police officer in taking or preventing the escape of any other person whom such magistrate or police officer is authorised to arrest
- in the prevention or suppression of a breach of peace
- in the prevention of any injury to be committed to any railway, canal, telegraph or public property
- in all of the above cases
- None of these
Any police officer may arrest without warrant any person
- who is concerned in any cognizable offence
- who has been proclaimed as an offender
- who is reasonably suspected of being a deserter from any armed forces
- All of the above
Original document is the best evidence. Exception to this rule is contained in
- Indian Evidence Act
- Criminal Procedure Code
- Bankers Book Evidence Act
- None of the above
______ of the Cr. P. C. deals with medical examination of a victim of rape.
- Section 164
- Section 164 A
- Section 166
- Section 166 B
F. I. R. under Section 154 of the Cr. P. C. is not a substantive piece of evidence. Its only use is to contradict or corroborate the matter thereof. It was held in ______ case.
- Shambhu Dass v. State of Assam, AIR 2010 SC 3300
- Ravishwar Manjhi v. State of Jharkhand AIR 2009 SC 1262
- State of Karnataka v. K. Yarappa Reddy 1999 (8) SCC 715
- Sheelam Ramesh v. State of Andhra Pradesh 1999 (8) SCC 369
______ confers the power upon the High Court to transfer cases and appeals.
- Section 406
- Section 407
- Section 405
- Section 404
Causing miscarriage, an offence punishable under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860), with the permission of the court before which any prosecution for such offence is pending, may be compounded by the
- person who caused miscarriage
- husband of the woman to whom miscarriage is caused
- woman to whom miscarriage is caused
- caretaker of the woman
Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the court after the commencement of a trial, the prosecutor and the accused
- shall be allowed to recall or resummon and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined
- shall be allowed to recall or resummon and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined, unless the court for reasons to be recorded in writing, considers that the prosecutor or the accused, as the case may be, desires to recall or re-examine such witness for the purpose of vexation or delay or for defeating the ends of justice
- shall not be allowed to recall or resummon and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined
- shall not be allowed to recall or resummon and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined because such witness may be vexed
Reliability of multiple dying declarations came for discussion under
- Vimal v. State of Maharashtra, 2006 AIR SCW 5953
- Pratap Mishra v. State of Orissa, AIR 1977 SC 1307
- State of Maharashtra v. Dr Praful B Desai (2003) 4 5CC 601
- None of the above
Which of the following persons may be charged jointly?
(i) Persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same transaction
(ii) Persons accused of an offence and persons accused of abetment of, or attempt to commit, such offence
(iii) Persons accused of different offences committed in the course of the same transaction
(iv) Persons accused of more than one offence of the same kind, within the meaning of Section 219 committed by them jointly within the period of twelve months
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (iii) and (iv)
- All of the above
- None of these
‘The DNA test cannot rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under S. 12 of the Indian Evidence Act. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption only by proving non-access which is a negative proof.” It was so held in
- Shaik Fakruddin v. Shaik Mohammed Hasan AIR 2006AP 48
- Siddaramesh v. State of Karnataka (2010) 3 SCC 152
- Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 2007 SC 107
- Somwanti v. State of Punjab, AIR 1963 SC 151
Propositions regarding confession of a co-accused, not required to be on oath and cannot be tested by cross examination are
(i) no evidence within the meaning of S.23 of Evidence Act and cannot be the foundation of a conviction
(ii) the only limited uses which can be made of a confession of a co-accused is by way of furnishing an additional reason for believing such other evidences as exists
(iii) a weak type of evidence and is much weaker than the evidence of an approver
- Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
- Only (i) and (iii) are correct
- Only (i) and (ii) are correct
- (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
An accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars is a
- presumption of fact
- presumption of law
- conclusive proof
- None of the above
A dispute regarding handwriting can be proved by
- calling an expert
- examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of the above
“The doubt, the benefit of which the accused is entitled, must be such as, rational thinking, sensible man may fairly and reasonably entertain, not the doubts of a vacillating mind that has not the moral courage to decide but shelters itself, in a vain and idle skepticism. There must be doubt which a man may honestly and conscientiously entertain.”
- Cockburn
- Lord Halsbury
- Lord Black
- None of the above
A subsequent case which referred to the principles of Praful Desai judgment is
- Dr. Kumar Saha v. Dr. Sukumar Mukheijee
- Nivrutti Pandurang Kokate v. Maharashtra
- Goutham Kundu v. State of West Bengal
- Mohd. Kalam v. Bihar
Section _______ of the Evidence Act provides that where a security procedure has been applied to an electronic record at a specific time, the record is deemed to be a secure electronic record from such time until the time of verification.
- 85 A
- 85B
- 67A
- 65 B
A, being a public servant directed by law to take property in execution, in order to satisfy a decree pronounced in B’s favour by a court of law, knowingly disobeys that discretion of law, with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause injury to B. A has committed the offence defined in Section
- 166
- 167
- 157
- 158
“The time-tested rule is that acquittal of a guilty person should preferred to conviction of an innocent person. Unless th prosecution establishes the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt a conviction cannot be passed on the accused. A criminal court cannot afford to deprive liberty of the appellants, lifelong liberty, without having at least a reasonable level of certainty that the appellants were the real culprits.” In which case did Supreme Court hold so?
- Rang Bahadur Singh v. State of U.P. AIR 2000 SC 1209
- Ramanath v. State, AIR 1953 SC 420 (Supreme Court)
- Sardul Singh Caveeshar v. State of Bombay, AIR 1957 SC 747 (Supreme Court)
- State v. Nalini, AIR 1999 SC 2640 (Supreme Court)
Which of the following does not form part of Actus Reus?
- Thought of conduct
- Result of conduct
- Circumstances as are specified by law
- Conduct
Under which of the following cases can a statute exclude mens rea?
- Public nuisance
- Cases in public interest
- Both of the above
- None of the above
Criminal conspiracy is defined in
- Section 120
- Section 120-B
- Section 120-A
- Section 120-D
Dacoity can cover
- robbery based on extortion
- robbery based on theft
- Both of the above
- None of the above
A with a view to murder D enters D’s bedroom at night when D is out of station. A is guilty of
- house trespass
- attempt to murder
- murder
- no offence
X meets Z on the National Highway, shows a knife and demands money, and gold ornaments found on the body of Z. He has committed
- theft
- dacoity
- extortion
- robbery
Use of violence by a member of unlawful assembly in furtherance of their common object will constitute offence of
- rioting
- assault
- affray
- None of the above
All instruments for the purpose of limitation shall be deemed to be made with reference to
- Gregorian calendar
- English calendar
- Roman calendar
- Nanak Shahi calendar
The defence of consent has no application in cases of
- causing grievous hurt
- causing death
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of the above
The essence of sedition under the Indian Penal Code is
- result
- intention
- both intention and result
- benefit or gain of the accused
Section 3 of the Limitation Act does not apply to
- suits
- applications
- executions
- None of the above
Which of the following claims under S.3 of the Limitation Act is/are treated as a separate suit?
- Set off
- Counter claim
- Both (1) and (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
In order to attract Section 4 of the Limitatiori Act, the court should be closed
- for the whole day
- during any part of normal working hours
- for substantial part of the day
- for more than half of the normal working hours
Section 3 of the Limitation Act is applicable to the period prescribed by any
- local law
- special law
- Both (1) and (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
Time barred debt can be claimed as
- set off
- counterclaim
- afresh suit
- None of the above
Under the Limitation Act, legal disabilities include
- minority
- insanity
- idiocy
- All of the above
Under the Transfer of Property Act, attached to the earth means
- rooted in the earth as trees and shrubs
- embedded in the earth as walls and buildings
- attached to what is so embedded for the beneficial enjoyment of that to which it is attached
- All of the above
Acknowledgement made by a person other than a person under liability is good if the person making it is
- relative of the person under liability
- agent of the person under liability
- servant of the person under liability
- master of the person under liability
An Ex parte decree can be set aside within 30 days from
- the date of the Ex parte decree
- the knowledge of the Ex parte decree where summon or notice was not duly served
- Both (1) and (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
Under the Transfer of Property Act, instrument means
- non-testamentary instrument
- testamentary instrument
- Both (1) and (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
Under Section 19 for the extended period of limitation, part payment must be
- in the handwriting of the person making the payment
- in the writing signed by the person making the payment
- Either (1) or (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
How can a transfer of property be made?
- Orally
- By a registered instrument
- Both (1) and (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
Which section of the Transfer of Property Act explains, “He who accepts the benefit under the instrument must adopt the whole of it”?
- S. 52
- S. 41
- S. 35
- S. 53 A
Actionable claim means
- unsecured debt
- any debt
- claim recognised by civil courts to grant relief
- All of the above
Where the proposal made is to be accepted by letters sent through post, the contract is completed the moment
- the letter accepting the proposal is posted
- when the letter reaches the proposer
- the postman delivers the letter to the proposer
- the postman delivers the letter to a person other than the proposer
The act of transferring property during the pendency of a proceeding makes the transfer
- void
- voidable
- neither void nor voidable
- illegal
In an unconscionable contract, the burden of proving that the contract was not induced by undue influence lies on
- person who is in a position to dominate the will of another
- person who accepted the proposal
- friend of the acceptor
- friend of the proposer
To create an interest for the benefit of an unborn person, which of the following requirements should be there?
- No direct interest
- Prior interest
- Absolute interest
- All of the above
Which of the following is not a transfer of property?
- Sale
- Mortgage
- Lease
- Partition
Where the order, in which reciprocal promises are to be performed is not expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order which
- the nature of the transaction requires
- is required by the acceptor
- is required by the proposer
- is required by the arbitrator appointed by the proposer and acceptor
A revokes by telegram his proposal to B, before its acceptance by B, to sell his house at a certain price.
The revocation is complete against A when
- the telegram is dispatched
- the telegram is returned undelivered
- the telegram is sent to a friend of A
- B learns that the telegram has been received by A
A contract is voidable if consent to an agreement
- is based on a mistake as to law
- was under a mistake of fact
- is under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement
- is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation
One person is deemed to be an agnate of another if they are related to each other
- by blood or adoption wholly through a male
- not wholly through males
- wholly through a female
- not wholly through females
The general rules of succession of a Hindu male dying intestate are contained in Section _________ of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
- S. 7
- S. 8
- S. 14
- S. 15
Under an agreement, A sells to B his skin bleaching products business “Intimate Whitener” and the goodwill of the business with the condition that A will not carry on such similar business throughout India so long as B carries it on anywhere in India. The agreement records that this condition is reasonable and that no court will have jurisdiction to examine this condition. The agreement is
- void
- voidable
- voidable in part
- void in part
Under S. 19 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if two or more heirs succeed together to the property of an intestate, they shall take the property as
- tenants in common
- joint tenants
- Either (1) or (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
Husband in Entry (a) of Section 15(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 includes
- husband of a subsisting marriage
- a divorced husband
- Both (1) and (2)
- Neither (1) nor (2)
An agent has to pay compensation to his principal for his misconduct which results in losses that are
- indirect result of the misconduct
- remotely caused by the misconduct
- indirectly and remotely caused by the misconduct
- directly caused by the misconduct
The domicile of a wife under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 is
- the place of her birth
- the place of her education
- the place where her family last resided
- that of her husband
An Indian Christian under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 means
- native of India
- native of India who is or in good faith is of unmixed Asiatic descent
- native of India who is or in good faith professes the Catholic religion
- native of India who is or in good faith claims to be of unmixed Asiatic descent and who professes any form of the Christian religion
Which of the given conditions apply(ies) to create a vested interest?
- It is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession.
- It is transferable and heritable.
- It accrues in the present and immediately, even though the enjoyment is postponed.
- All of the above
The rights of a child in the womb at the time of the death of a Hindu intestate are provided under the Hindu Succession Act in
- S. 19
- S. 20
- S. 21
- S. 22
The property of an intestate where he has left no lineal descendants can be distributed under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 only after deducting the share of
- his widow
- his children
- his step children
- his parents
No suit for the recovery of possession can be filed under S. 6 of the Specific Relief Act after the expiry of
- six months from the date of dispossession
- nine months from the date of dispossession
- twelve months from the date of dispossession
- eighteen months from the date of dispossession
X sells a property to Z with a condition that he must live in it. The condition is
- void
- voidable
- legal
- None of the above
Privileged wills are those made by
- any person above 18 years of age
- soldiers
- soldiers or airmen engaged in warfare or a mariner at sea
- mariner at land
Which of the following grounds will prevent a plaintiff from seeking specific enforcement?
- Plaintiff has violated an essential term of the contract.
- Plaintiff has acted fraudulently.
- Plaintiff has acted at variance.
- All of the above
Under Section 20 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, a husband on marriage
- acquires an interest in the wife’s property
- does not acquire an interest in the wife’s property
- becomes the trustee of the wife’s property
- becomes the guardian of the wife’s property
Which of the following can be specifically enforced?
- A contract for sale of property under allotment
- Mere agreement to enter into a contract
- Contract to marry
- None of the above
A defendant can take which of the following defences in a suit for specific performance?
- Money is adequate compensation
- Uncertainty of the terms of the contract
- Contract made in excess of power
- All of the above
Relief of specific performance can be granted for enforcing
- civil rights
- penal laws
- civil rights and penal laws
- neither civil rights nor penal laws
A bailor is liable for damages arising to the bailee from the faults in the goods if he did not disclose to the bailee his awareness of all
- faults
- faults which interfere with the use of the goods
- faults which materially interfere with the use of the goods
- faults which make them valuable for some other use
A declaration under S. 34 of the Specific Relief Act can be sought by
- a stranger having no interest in the property
- a person whose legal character or a right to property is denied
- a person whose legal character or right to property is not denied
- All of the above
A contract can be specifically enforced
- where compensation is adequate relief for the non-performance of the contract
- where the contract by it’s nature is determinable
- where it involves the performance of continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
- None of the above
A agrees to pay B Rs. 1 Lakh if X is not made the Prime Minister after he wins in the general election for choosing members of Parliament. According to the Contract Act, this is a contingent contract under
- S. 35
- S. 34
- S. 33
- S. 32
A suit for possession under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed within
- 3 years
- 6 years
- 12 years
- 30 years
Section 13 of the Specific Relief Act has no application when the transfer has been effected in respect of property whose
- vendor has no title to the property
- vendor has title to the property
- vendor has imperfect title
- None of the above
Relief of rescission is granted in cases where
- contract is void
- contract is voidable
- contract is both voidable and void
- contract is neither void nor voidable
A businessman enters into an agreement with a Chartered Accountant to pay him fees and commission for the tax saved by so arranging the accounts as to conceal the true income of the business. Any dispute between the businessman and the Chartered Accountant on the fee and commission is to be settled by arbitration. The agreement is
- void
- voidable
- voidable in part
- void in part