Infectious Diseases

Comprehensive quiz covering viral diseases, fungal diseases, helminthic diseases, protozoan diseases, and bacterial diseases, including pathogen characteristics, life cycles, immune responses, and clinical features.

58 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Dracunculus medinensis is a parasite of humans, dogs, horses, cows, wolves, etc. Which among the following is a mode of transmission of dracunculus larvae?

  1. Predator-prey transmission
  2. Vector-borne transmission
  3. Transdermal transmission
  4. Transepidermal transmission
  5. Faecal-oral transmission
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The entire life cycle of most of the parasitic worms lasts four to six weeks. The life cycle of which among the following worms includes parasitic parthenogenetic females that are capable of hatching the eggs either internally or externally?

  1. Camallanid
  2. Rhabditid
  3. Strongyle
  4. Oxyurid
  5. Ascarid
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following worms is the only human blood fluke predominantly found in China?

  1. T. solium
  2. T. saginata
  3. S. mansoni
  4. S. japonicum
  5. F. hepatica
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following diseases is spread by blood-feeding black flies?

  1. Ascariasis
  2. Dracunculiasis
  3. Elephantiasis
  4. Enterobiasis
  5. Filariasis
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements regarding the life cycle of roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides is incorrect?

  1. First appearance of eggs in stools is within 60–70 days.
  2. Some patients may have pulmonary symptoms or neurological disorders during migration of the larvae.
  3. Adult worms have a lifespan of 1–2 days.
  4. The eggs can survive potentially for 15 years.
  5. The eggs have a characteristic oval shape.
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a helminthic disease in which the patient becomes blind?

  1. Necatoriasis
  2. Onchocerciasis
  3. Trichinosis
  4. Trichuriasis
  5. Hymenolepis
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding filariasis?

  1. Lymphatic filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
  2. Subcutaneous filarias is caused by Loa.
  3. Filariasis is usually diagnosed by finger prick test.
  4. Elephantiasis results when the parasites lodge in the nervous system of an organism.
  5. Serous cavity filariasis is caused by Mansonella perstans and Mansonella ozzardi.
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following does NOT predispose to superficial Candida albicans infection in human beings?

  1. Pregnancy
  2. Lymphoma
  3. Diabetes mellitus
  4. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
  5. Vegetarian diet
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements does not characterise helminths?

  1. Helminths can be hermaphrodites also.
  2. All helminths produce eggs for reproduction.
  3. Helminth ova have a strong shell.
  4. Helminths deposit eggs at a frequency of thrice a day.
  5. The life cycle of adult worms varies tremendously from one species to another but is generally in the range of 1 to 8 years.
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is false?

  1.  It only affects the elderly.
  2. It affects the peri-arteriolar connective tissues of the body.
  3. It is believed to be caused by antibody cross-reactivity.
  4. It shows no evidence of genetic susceptibility.
  5. The recurrence of rheumatic fever is relatively common in the absence of maintenance of low dose antibiotics.
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Epstein-Barr virus is NOT implicated in

  1. chronic lymphatic leukaemia
  2. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  3. Burkitt's lymphoma
  4. infectious mononucleosis
  5. post-transplantation lymphoproliferative syndrome
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Diabetic patients and malnourished children are most susceptible to which among the following fungal diseases?

  1. Candidiasis
  2. Cryptococcosis
  3. Zygomycosis
  4. Aspergillosis
  5. Hyalohyphomycosis
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mrs. Shukla is an immunodeficient patient. Which among the following pathogens can infect her most?

  1. Aspergillus
  2. Mucor
  3. Cryptococcus
  4. Candida
  5. Malassezia furfur
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Central auditory processing disorder (CAPD) is a complex problem affecting about 10% of school-aged children. These patients are more prone to be infected by which among the following fungi?

  1. Candida norvegensis
  2. Candida guilliermondii
  3. Candida parapsilosis
  4. Candida lusitaniae
  5. Candida tropicalis
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following is a causative agent of swamp cancer, especially in horses?

  1. Conidiobolus coronatus
  2. Basidiobolus ranarum
  3. Apophysomyces elegans
  4. Pythium insidiosum
  5. Shizophyllum
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mycotic abortion is common only in cattle. The causative agent of bovine mycotic abortion is

  1. Syncephalastrum racemosum
  2. Saksenaea vasiformis
  3. Lichtheimia corymbifera
  4. Mortierella wolfii
  5. Cunninghamella bertholletiae
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The immunosuppressed patients are more susceptible to the infection of

  1. Curvularia
  2. Phaeoannellomyces werneckii
  3. Scedosporium prolificans
  4. Sporothrix schenckii
  5. Wangiella dermatitidis
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Keratin is a fibrous scleroprotein that occurs in the outer layer of the skin and in horny tissues such as hair, feathers, nails and hooves. Which among the following diseases is caused by a fungus which has the ability to utilise keratin as a nutrient source for its growth?

  1. Paronychia
  2. Pityriasis folliculitis
  3. Dermatophytosis
  4. Chronic candidal onychomycosis
  5. Candidiasis
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Acne is a common skin disease that causes pimples. Acne and its variants are the types of which of the following infections?

  1. Erysipelas
  2. Tropical pyomyositis
  3. Impetigo
  4. Cellulitis
  5. Folliculitis
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following fungi is best known as an insect parasite?

  1. Fusarium
  2. Beauveria bassiana
  3. Aspergillus fumigatus
  4. Saksenaea vasiformis
  5. Rhizopus oryzae
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements regarding Strongyloididae worms is false?

  1. They are unique amongst nematodes, being capable of both parasitic and free-living reproductive cycles.
  2. Transmission of the worm involves a geo-helminth phase.
  3. Thread-worm infections occur in a range of mammalian species throughout the world.
  4. Parasitic worms are all parthenogenetic males.
  5. Free-living male and female worms have a rhabditiform pharynx and are smaller in size.
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements does not characterise onchocerciasis?

  1. The parasite worm is spread by the bite of a black fly.
  2. A vaccine against this disease does not exist.
  3. Onchocerciasis is also known as river blindness.
  4. Adult worms remain in subcutaneous nodules, limiting access to the host's immune system.
  5. The microfilaria migrate to the skin during the night.
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

After a complete medical checkup, the doctor confirmed to a couple that their child was suffering from CNS zygomycosis which is a deadly fungal disesae. The causative agent of CNS zygomycosis is

  1. Rhizomucor pusillus
  2. Mucor
  3. Cunninghamella bertholletiae
  4. Absidia corymbifera
  5. Conidiobolus coronatus
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Ankita and her sister are HIV-infected. Which among the following fungi are recognised from the oral cavity of HIV-infected patients?

  1. Candida kefyr
  2. Candida glabrata
  3. Candida famata
  4. Candida dubliniensis
  5. Candida albicans
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

After a thorough check-up, it is confirmed that a patient is suffering from a fungal disease which is characterised by draining sinuses, granules and tumefaction. Which among the following diseases is the patient suffering from?

  1. Chromoblastomycosis
  2. Cutaneous mycoses
  3. Sporotrichosis
  4. Pityriasis
  5. Mycetoma
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

It is well-known that the people doing regular back-breaking exercises may be at increased risk of various respiratory tract infections. The stress induced by extensive exercise can increase susceptibility to infection by

  1. increasing the synthesis of adrenaline
  2. raising the plasma levels of cortisol
  3. increasing the lymph flow
  4. damaging the mast cells
  5. increasing the respiratory rate
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The blood samples of an old man showed levels of aflatoxins, which is a potent liver carcinogen. Which among the following fungi is associated with the production of aflatoxins?

  1. Aspergillus sojae
  2. Aspergillus oryzae
  3. Aspergillus parasiticus
  4. Aspergillus versicolor
  5. Aspergillus ustus
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Protection against various microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, etc. inside the living cells is provided by which among the following components of the immune system?

  1. T-cells
  2. Antibodies
  3. C3b
  4. C1q
  5. Membrane-attack complex
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following microorganisms does not use antigenic variation as a major means of evading host defence?

  1. Influenza A virus
  2. Borrelia recurrentis
  3. HIV
  4. Trypanosome
  5. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following is required for transferring specific immunity to M. tuberculosis in mice?

  1. B-cells
  2. T-cells
  3. Macrophages
  4. Neutrophils
  5. IgG
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

HIV is one of the most deadly lentivirus that is capable of destructing neutrophil chemotaxis, recruitment and cell structure. Which among the following mediates the neutrophil chemotaxis?

  1. C5b
  2. IL-8
  3. C3a
  4. CCL2
  5. E-selectin
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bacterial protein toxins are the most powerful human poisons known and retain high activity at very high dilutions. After invading the human body, these toxins get neutralised by which of the following components of immune system?

  1. Complement
  2. Antibodies
  3. Toxoids
  4. PGE2
  5. Proteolytic enzymes
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bacillus anthracis and Escherichia coli are the two most prominent extracellular bacterial pathogens. Extracellular bacteria try to avoid killing by

  1. activating neutrophils
  2. accelerating complement activation
  3. synthesising capsules
  4. deviating complement deposition to the cell membrane
  5. limiting variation in their antigens
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following is a bacterial inflammation of breast tissue in human beings?

  1. Gastroenteritis
  2. Mastitis
  3. Sepsis
  4. Meningitis
  5. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Streptococcus pyogenes owes its major success as a pathogen to its ability to colonise and rapidly multiply and spread in its host while evading phagocytosis and confusing the immune system. Which among the following statements is correct regarding the pyrogenic streptococcal exotoxins SPE, A, B and C?

  1. They are M proteins.
  2. They cause post-streptococcal autoimmune disease.
  3. They produce high titers of anti-streptolysin O.
  4. They have hyaluronidase activity.
  5. They are superantigens.
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Antigenic shift is seen only with influenza A viruses. It results usually from the replacement of the hemagglutinin and generally involves

  1. single point mutation
  2. random point mutations
  3. interchanging of large segments of the viral genome with other viruses
  4. rearrangement of the viral structural architecture
  5. regression to an earlier variant
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Many years ago, leprosy was considered a mysterious disease associated with some type of curse, and people suffering from leprosy were isolated and ostracised. Lepromatous leprosy is characterised by

  1. poor T-cell responses
  2. good cell-mediated immunity
  3. good lepromin dermal response
  4. poor B-cell responses
  5. poor phagocytic ability
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The HIV nef protein affects antigen presentation by

  1. causing MHC class I endocytosis
  2. containing glycine-alanine repeats which inhibit proteasome-mediated processing of the virus
  3. preventing peptide binding to TAP
  4. preventing peptide transport through the TAP pore
  5. competing for peptide binding to the MHC class I heavy chain
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following options characterises interferons?

  1. They opsonise viruses.
  2. They neutralise viruses.
  3. They play a major role in recovery from viral infections.
  4. They prevent viral entry into cells.
  5. They protect against reinfection with virus.
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Type 1 T helper (Th1) cells produce interferon-gamma, interleukin (IL)-2, and tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-beta, which activate macrophages at the time of infections. Th1 cells are of major importance in defence against which of the following protozoans?

  1. Trypanosoma brucei
  2. Leishmania donovani
  3. Malarial merozoites
  4. Malarial sporozoites
  5. Trichinella spiralis
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements regarding the cytotoxic T-cells of the activated defense mechanism is correct?

  1. They are usually CD4.
  2. They recognise native viral antigen.
  3. They are more readily produced by killed rather than live virus.
  4. They kill viruses directly.
  5. They restrict viral replication.
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following invades the red blood cells of human beings in the life cycle of a malarial parasite?

  1. Sporozoite
  2. Ookinete
  3. Oocyst
  4. Merozoite
  5. Gametocytes
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Prions are highly infectious particles leading to various diseases in human beings. Prions are

  1. relatively sensitive to protease digestion
  2. associated with CGD
  3. present in follicular dendritic cells in individuals with transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
  4. normally eliminated by B-cells
  5. destroyed by macrophages
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The membrane attack complex is composed of a complex of four complement proteins (C5b, C6, C7 and C8) that bind to the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Individuals lacking C8 or C9 are more prone to get infected from

  1. Haemophilus influenzae
  2. Bacillus anthrax
  3. Vibrio cholerae
  4. Neisseria
  5. Listeria monocytogenes
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements regarding leprosy is false?

  1. Leprosy is an infectious skin and nerve disease.
  2. Children are more likely to get leprosy than adults.
  3. Tuberculoid leprosy is less contagious than other forms.
  4. Leprosy is caused by a fast-growing type of bacteria.
  5. Leprosy has a very long incubation period.
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following changes in the cell causes inflammation, which is a defensive reaction initiated by infection or tissue injury?

  1. Upregulation of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells and leukocytes
  2. Chemotaxis
  3. IL-8 release
  4. Phagocytosis
  5. Bacterial killing
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following mechanisms is not used by trypanosomes to evade the host immune response?

  1. Pre-empting complement defences
  2. Releasing decoy proteins
  3. Varying their surface antigens
  4. Escaping from the phagosome
  5. Completely resisting phagocytosis
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The mucosal surfaces represent the largest area of exposure of the body to external pathogens like bacteria, viruses, protozoans, etc. Which among the following types of immunoglobulins initially protects the mucosal surfaces of the body?

  1. IgG
  2. IgM
  3. IgE
  4. Secretory IgA
  5. IgD
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis cells growing in macrophages are filamentous and deficient in FtsZ rings, and are killed by which of the following constituents of defense mechanism?

  1. Complement
  2. Reactive oxygen and nitrogen intermediates
  3. Antibodies
  4. Cytotoxic T-cells
  5. Cytokines released from Th1 cells
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The extracellular bacteria are found outside the living cells and can be detected quite easily by the immune system because T-cells can come in contact with them. Extracellular bacteria are killed by which of the following phenomena occurring between the host and the bacteria?

  1. Secreting exotoxins
  2. Impeding inflammatory reactions
  3. Phagocytosis and complement
  4. Toxin neutralisation
  5. C-reactive protein
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Various skin tests of microbial antigens such as tuberculin and mumps indicate a deficiency of

  1. NK cells
  2. T-cells
  3. B-cells
  4. Phagocytosis
  5. Opsonisation
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements regarding M. tuberculosis is false?

  1. M. tuberculosis is a genetically diverse bacterium.
  2. Humans are the only known reservoirs of M. tuberculosis.
  3. It does not retain any bacteriological stain.
  4. The rate of division of M. tuberculosis is extremely fast.
  5. Its cell wall is rich in lipids.
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following is credited with first describing the bacterium N. gonorrhoea?

  1. Ernst Haeckel
  2. Rudolf Virchow
  3. Boeck
  4. Armauer Hansen
  5. Albert Neisser
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following fungi is a major producer of carcinogenic aflatoxins in crops worldwide?

  1. A. fumigatus
  2. A. nidulans
  3. A. flavus
  4. A. lentulus
  5. A. terreus
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which among the following statements does not characterise Escherichia coli (E. coli)?

  1. E. coli and other facultative anaerobes constitute about 0.1% of gut flora.
  2. E. coli is a gram-negative, facultatively aerobic, rod-shaped bacterium.
  3. E. coli is a very versatile host for the production of heterologous proteins.
  4. E. coli was one of the first organisms to have its genome sequenced.
  5. E. coli normally colonises an infant's gastrointestinal tract within 40 hours of birth.
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements regarding the life cycle of malarial parasite is incorrect?

  1. The sporozoites travel to the liver and invade liver cells.
  2. Over 5-16 days, the sporozoites grow, divide and produce tens of thousands of merozoites.
  3. The merozoites exit the liver cells and re-enter the bloodstream.
  4. Some of the merozoite-infected blood cells leave the cycle of sexual multiplication.
  5. When a mosquito bites an infected human, it ingests the gametocytes.
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Immune complex–induced nephrotic syndrome is a feature of which of the following diseases?

  1. Trypanosomiasis
  2. Quartan malaria
  3. Schistosomiasis
  4. Leishmaniasis
  5. Chagas' disease
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An increased total IgE level indicates that it is likely that a person has one or more allergies. High IgE levels are found in infections with which of the following protozoans?

  1. Trypanosoma cruzi
  2. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
  3. Plasmodium falciparum
  4. Trichinella spiralis
  5. Leishmania tropica