CSAT Paper - 1 (Mock test - 9)

Both the given statements are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion. Among the four varieties of coal - Anthracite, bituminous, lignite and peat - the first two varieties are considered superior in quality, while lignite and peat are considered inferior. But, Indian lignite is considered to be better in quality owing to its less ash content.

Excise duty was stashed on imports apart from various other measures adopted viz, membership of WTO, foreign technical agreements, etc.

Correct Answer: Total Budget Expenditure (-) (Revenue Receipt + Capital Receipts Excluding Borrowing)

Import and export duties are not included in a country's balance of payments. Balance of payments accounts are an accounting record of all monetary transactions between a country and the rest of the world. These transactions include payments for the country's exports and imports of goods, services, financial capital, and financial transfers.

Germany does not share border with Italy.  

In the context of the trend of establishing quality residential schools for the promotion of education in all areas and habitations in the country, the Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) for ST students take their place among the Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas, the Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas and the Kendriya Vidyalayas. The structure of EMRS is as follows:

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), which was passed by the Indian parliament on 4 August, 2009, came into force on 1 April, 2010.

DTC removes most of the categories of exempted income. Equity Mutual Funds (ELSS), Term deposits, NSC (National Savings certificates), Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIPs), Long term infrastructures bonds, house loan principal repayment, stamp duty and registration fees on purchase of house property will lose tax benefits.

Plants will undergo wilting in case of deficiency of water in the plant body.

1. In case of high temperature, the transpiration rate is more than than absorption of water, which causes water deficiency.
2. In case of high humidity, the transpiration rate decreases and it does not cause deficient gradient.
3. Similarly in case of heavy rainfall, the transpiration rate decreases and it does not cause deficient gradient.

The modern Indian economy after 1991 liberalization is fundamentally market-oriented, with price signals, competition, and private enterprise driving production decisions. While India still has labour-intensive sectors due to abundant labor, the organizing principle is market allocation rather than being labour-intensive per se. The self-sufficient village system describes pre-independence subsistence economy.

This is a tricky question. It should be noted that it was the Government of India Act, 1909 that introduced the system of communal electorates for the Muslims by accepting the concept of 'separate electorates'. The Government of India Act, 1919, however, extended the principle by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and the Europeans. It did not introduce separate electorates for the Muslims, as they were already introduced by the Government of India Act, 1909.

Indian currency (INR) has depreciated close to 22% in the last 1 year. The persistent decline in rupee is a cause of concern.
Factors that pushed INR into the well are:
<b style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">1. Continued Global uncertainty: <span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">Owing to uncertainty prevailing in Europe and slump in international market, investors prefer to stay away from risky investments (flight to security).
<b style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">2. Current Account Deficit: <span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">While a country like China will be more than happy with a depreciating currency, the same doesn't apply for India. China exports more than it imports, thus a depreciating currency makes its exports cheaper in the International market, in turn making China more competitive.
<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">3. <b style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">Capital Account flows: <span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">Deficit countries need capital flows and surplus countries generate capital outflows. India needs dollars to finance its current account deficit.
<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">4. <b style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">Persistent inflation: <span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">India has experienced high inflation, above 8%, for almost two years. If inflation becomes a prolonged one, it leads to overall worsening of economic prospects and capital outflows and eventual depreciation of the currency.
<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">5. <b style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">Interest Rate Difference:<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;=""> Higher real interest rates generally attract foreign investment but due to slowdown in growth there is increasing pressure on RBI to decrease the policy rates. Under such conditions foreign investors tend to stay away from investing.
<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">6. <b style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">Lack of reforms: <span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">Key policy reforms like Direct Tax Code (DTC) and Goods and Service Tax (GST) have been in the pipe line for years. A retrospective tax law (GAAR) has already earned a lot of flak from the business community.

Statement 1 is correct. The crust of Earth and Mars is mainly made up of iron and rocks.
Statement 2 is also correct. Pluto is now considered a dwarf planet dwelling in the Kuiper Belt.

 The second major blood grouping system is the Rhesus (Rh) system. Like the ABO blood types, the Rh factor is an inherited blood protein, or antigen, on red blood cells.

Mammals have the following characteristics:

1. Heterodont dentation (different kinds of teeth like incisors, molars, premolars and canines)
2. Three auditory ossicles (malleus, incus and stapes)
3. Four chambered heart (two auricles and two ventricles)
4. Attached placenta (The placenta is attached to the wall of the uterus by blood vessels that supply the fetus with oxygen and nutrition and remove waste from it.)

Radha Mohan Cup is associated with the game of Polo.

Statement 1 is incorrect because CIRUS is the second oldest nuclear reactor of India, the oldest being APSARA.
Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect because CIRUS (Canada India Research Utility Services) is a research reactor at the Bhabha Atomic Research Center (BARC) in Trombay near Mumbai, India. CIRUS was supplied by Canada in 1954, but uses heavy water supplied by the U.S.

The Arab Revolution began in Tunisia, with the self immolation of an unemployed youth Mohamed Bouazizi on 17 December, 2010. The demonstrations were precipitated by high unemployment, food inflation, corruption, lack of freedom of speech and other political freedoms and poor living conditions.
Yemen, not Syria, was the third country where the revolution spread.

Buddha attained 'nirvana' (enlightenment) at Bodh Gaya. He had attained 'mahaparinirvana' (freedom from the cycle of birth and death) at Kusinara or Kusinagar in eastern U.P.
All other statements are correct.

Tashkent Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan. Tashkent Agreement, an accord signed by India's prime minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and Pakistan's president Ayub Khan, ended the 17-day war between Pakistan and India of August-September 1965. A cease-fire had been secured by the United Nations Security Council on September 22, 1965.

Statement 1: It is the correct statement. The concept of the Sanskrit word Parnirvana is the Final Nirvana that is attained upon the death of the physical body. Parinirvana is also sometimes called Maha-parinirvana which means Great Final Nirvana. Therefore, this day is commemorated as the day that the Buddha physically died and entered the final state of Parinirvana (or Maha-parinirvana). The day is also sometimes called The Buddha's Day of Final Extinguishment of the Causes of Suffering.
Statement 2: It is the correct statement. The term Nirvana is usually translated and understood as meaning Enlightenment. However, Nirvana literally means to extinguish or to blow out and refers to the complete ending of suffering due to the extinguishing of greed, hatred and delusion.
Statement 3: It is the correct statement. Samsara is the Wheel of Life and refers to the cyclical stages of existence that are characteristic of reincarnation or transmigration (birth-death-rebirth).
Statement 4: It is correct statement. Maitreya is a bodhisattva who in the Buddhist tradition is to appear on Earth, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor of the historic Sakyamuni Buddha (Siddhartha Gautama Buddha).
Hence, the correct option is 4.

The Govt. has set up seven Zonal Cultural Centres for development, preservation, promotion and dissemination of the traditional arts across the country. Guwahati is not amongst them.  

Religion bound ancient civilizations and culture in India. Religion began as a set of beliefs regarding nature and purpose of the Universe and gradually became organized system of belief binding people together into close knit groups with religion as their identity. Religion in India has never been static; it has continued to evolve through various movements, ideas and responses to those ideas.
India has given birth to four religions - Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism and Sikhism. Others which have been 'imported' from abroad are Islam, Christianity, Zoroastrianism, Judaism and Bahai faith.

Correct Answer: Bedaquiline

The constitution FRBM panel was announced by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley while presenting the budget for fiscal 2016-17. 

Patañjali, the great grammarian, was the author of the Mahâbhâṣya, a commentary on Pâṇini's Aṣṭâdhyâyî. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.)
Patanjali was the contemporary of Pushyamitra of Sunga Dynasty. (Hence, statement 2 is also incorrect.)

Correct Answer: Bhagat Singh

Option 1: The first survey of the island city was conducted by British officer Pringle in 1827. This resulted into the misclassification of land after Pringle's survey.
Option 2: In 1820, Thomas Munro was appointed governor of Madras, where he founded systems of revenue assessment and general administration which substantially persisted into the twentieth century.
Option 3: In October 1901, the Secretary of State for India in Council appointed Sir Thomas Robertson, C.V.O, as Special Commissioner for Indian Railways to enquire into and report on the administration and working of the Indian Railways.
Option 4: Philip Francis was one of the "advisors" of Warren Hastings.
Hence, the correct option is 1.

Option 1: 111^th Constitutional Amendment Bill refers to professional management of co-operative societies.
Option 2: 114^th Constitutional Amendment Bill proposes that the Constitution allows every judge of a High Court including additional and acting judges to hold office till 62 years. The bill increases the age limit to 65 years.
Option 3: The Government of India has introduced the 115^th Constitutional Amendment Bill 2011, on Goods and Services Tax (GST) in the Budget Session of Parliament. The bill has been referred to the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance.
This was introduced in the Parliament to provide for levy of Goods and Services Tax (GST) by the Union and the States/Union Territories having legislature.
Hence, the correct option is 3.

Correct Answer: A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2

The forms of oath prescribed in the Third Schedule of the Constitution are meant for the following candidates:
<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">• Members of Parliament and State Legislatures 
<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">• Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">• Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 

Lothal was a sea port found in the Indus Valley Civilisation. Lothal is one of the most prominent cities of the ancient Indus valley civilization. Located in Bhal region of the modern state of Gujarat and dating from 2400 BCE. Lothal's dock is the world's earliest known, connected the city to an ancient course of the Sabarmati river on the trade route between Harappan cities in Sindh and the peninsula of Saurashtra when the surrounding Kutch desert of today was a part of the Arabian Sea. 

Statement 1 is wrong as the village Naxalbari is in <st1:place w:st="on">West Bengal, not in Chattisgarh.<o:p>
Statement 2 is perfectly correct. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act is an Indian law aimed at effective prevention of unlawful activities in <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India. Its main objective was to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of <st1:country-region w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">India. Naxalites have been declared as a terrorist organisation under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of India, 1967. 

<o:p>Statement 3 is wrong. The novel 'The God of Small Things' is written by Arundhati Roy. Aruna Roy is an Indian political and social activist who founded and heads the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathana.

The immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her personal acts, during his/her tenure is an exception to the fundamental right to equality (of treatment in similar circumstances and absence of any special privilege in favour of any individual) as mentioned in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. The President of India is immune from any criminal proceedings against him/her. But after giving 2 month notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him/her. 

Only the following five communities have been notified by the Government as 'minority' communities under Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992:

Lord Dalhousie's annexation of Oudh in 1856 under the Doctrine of Lapse was widely criticized as arbitrary and unjust. The claim of misuse was exaggerated, and this annexation was a major factor contributing to resentment among Indian rulers and soldiers, ultimately leading to the 1857 Revolt.

Correct Answer: Foreign Ministry

Statement 1: It is correct because the famous battle of Buxar (22 October, 1764) on which the fate of India finally achieved the objective that the battle of Plassey (23 June 1757) failed to achieve. After the victory of Buxar, the English armies advanced towards Avadh and established their control over Banaras and Allahabad. A treaty was concluded between Nawab Shujauddaula and the British. The supremacy of the English was established in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa after this war. The existence of the Nawab of Avadh now fully depended on the mercy of the English. They also imprisoned the mughal emperor and extended the British territory towards north-west of Bengal. It curtailed the power of the Mughal emperor, yet they continued to have honour and prestige all over India. It also added to the power and prestige of the English.
Statement 2: It is correct because Battle of Buxar was a decisive battle fought between British and Indian forces at Buxar, a town on the Ganges River. Mir Kasim, the nawab (governor) of Bengal, wanted to rid his territory of British control. He formed an alliance with the Nawab of Oudh and Shah Alam II, the Mughal emperors. The combined Indian armies invaded Bengal and clashed with British troops led by Major Hector Munro, in October 1764. It resulted in victory of the British and in1765, Robert Clive signed the Treaty of Allahabad with the Nawab of Oudh and Shah Alam II. The treaty effectively legalized the British East India Company's control over the whole of Bengal.
Statement 3: It is incorrect because the Treaty of Alinagar was signed on February 9, 1757 between Robert Clive of the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal, Mirza Muhammad Siraj-ud-Daula. The signing of the treaty was one of the events leading up to the famous Battle of Plassey (2 July 1757). Later the consequence of Battle of Buxar (22 October 1764) was the Treaty of Allahabad (1765) signed between the prime victim Shuja-ud-Daula and the British, that secured Diwani Rights for the Company to collect and manage the revenues.
Hence, the correct option is 3.

A motion for the removal of judges of either the Supreme Court or the High Court needs to be approved by a special majority, i.e. 2/3^rd of the members present and voting, in both Houses of the Parliament. So far, no judge has faced removal via the procedure enshrined in the Constitution.

Correct Answer: C, B, A

Nagaland was formed in 1963, Haryana in 1966, Sikkim in 1975 and Arunachal Pradesh in 1987.

The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Article 74(1) stating that the President 'shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers'. This made it constitutionally mandatory rather than just a convention, removing any ambiguity about the President's discretion.

Correct Answer: protect and promote integrity in administration

Individual Satyagraha, Forward Bloc, Rajaji Formula and INA Trials started in 1940, 1939, 1944 and 1945, respectively. Vinoba Bhave was first satyagrahi on 17 October, 1940 and Jawarharlal Nehru, the second. If the government did not arrest them, they planned to start moving towards Delhi. Subhash Chandra resigned from Congress Presidentship on 29 April 1939. On 3 May, 1939, he declared the formation of Forward Bloc. In response to the demand of Pakistan, Congress put forward the Rajaji Formula which formed the basis of Jinnah-Gandhi talks in 1944. They parleyed for 18 days, but to no avail.

Correct Answer: Financial emergency due to economic instability

In a Parliamentary democracy like India, the Government goes out of power if the Lower House passes a no confidence motion against the Government. A motion of no confidence is a parliamentary motion which when passed would demonstrate to the head of state that the elected parliament no longer has confidence in (one or more members of) the appointed government.

One of the characteristics of a parliamentary system of Government in India is that the ministry is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Every State has a Legislative Assembly. Certain States have an upper House also called State Legislative Council. There is a Governor for each state who is appointed by the President. Governor is the Head of the State and the executive power of the State is vested in him. The Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as its head advises the Governor in the discharge of the executive functions.

The concept of presumptive tax covers a wide variety of alternative means for determining the tax base, ranging from methods of reconstructing income based on administrative practice, which can be rebutted by the taxpayer, to true minimum taxes with tax bases specified in legislation.
Statement 1: It is correct. An indirect attack through presumptive taxation may become more successful than direct attempts to reduce concessions. Such indirect methods also reduce tax evasion. Further, transfer pricing practices by multinationals to optimise on cross-country differences in corporate tax rates become less profitable. A minimum alternate tax (MAT) that targets the average tax liability across tax payers is a method that allows keeping the marginal tax rate low.
Statements 2 and 3: They are correct. As per Dr. Kelkar Committee's report, the Finance Minister has introduced two controversial provisions levying separate tax on Fringe Benefits to employees and Banking Cash Transactions.
Statement 4: VAT is not a presumptive tax.
Hence, the correct option is 3.

The foreign exchange reserves of India include Foreign Exchange Assets of the Reserve Bank of India, Gold Stock of RBI, Special Drawing Rights (SDR) holding of the Government and Reserve Tranche Position (The difference between a member's quota and the IMF's holdings of its currency is a country's Reserve Tranche Position.) 

Correct Answer: <span style="font-size:" 10pt;="" font-family:="" arial;="">to ensure proper working of the parliamentary system of government

Limited Liability Partnership is a partnership in which some or all partners (depending on the jurisdiction) have limited liability. It therefore exhibits elements of partnerships and corporations. In an LLP one partner is not responsible or liable for another partner's misconduct or negligence. In an LLP, some partners have a form of limited liability similar to that of the shareholders of a corporation. Some of its major benefits are:

Collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) are a type of structured asset-backed security (ABS) with multiple "tranches" that are issued by special purpose entities and collateralized by debt obligations including bonds and loans. (Hence, option '1' is incorrect.)
Participatory notes (PNs / P-Notes) are instruments used by investors or hedge funds that are not registered with the SEBI (Securities & Exchange Board of India) to invest in Indian securities.
SEBI permitted FIIs to register and participate in the Indian stock market in 1992.
Indian based brokerages buy Indian-based securities and then issue PNs to foreign investors. Any dividends or capital gains collected from the underlying securities go back to the investors. (Hence, option '2' is correct.)
The term "pump priming" is derived from the operation of older pumps; a suction valve had to be primed with water so that the pump would function properly. With these pumps, pump priming assumes that the economy must be primed to function properly once again. In this regard, government spending is assumed to stimulate private spending, which in turn should lead to economic expansion.
(Hence, option '3' is incorrect.)
A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial swap agreement that the seller of the CDS will compensate the buyer in the event of a loan default or other credit event. (Hence, option '4' is incorrect.)

The Ministry of Rural Development has three departments viz. Department of Rural Development, Department of Drinking Water Supply and Department of Land Resources.

Article 16 provides that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in the matter of employment or appointment to any office under the State. This Article also provides that no citizen shall be ineligible for any office or employment under the State on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent and place of birth or any of them.

Nine Indian states have coastlines. They are
Kerala
Tamilnadu
Karnataka
Andhra Pradesh
Gujarat
Goa
Maharashtra
Orissa
West Bengal
Gujarat has the longest coastline.
(Hence, both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.)

Correct Answer: Both (iii) and (iv)

The purpose of Writ of Mandamus is direction to the official for the performance of a duty. Prohibition is prohibition of an action, Certiorari is transferring of a case from lower court to a court of higher jurisdiction and Quo Worranto is trial of the right to title of elective office. A writ of mandamus is the name of one of the prerogative writs in the common law, and is issued by a superior court to compel a lower court or a government officer to perform mandatory or purely ministerial duties correctly. A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop doing something the law prohibits. Certiorari is a type of writ seeking judicial review, recognized in U.S, Roman, English, Philippine, and other laws, meaning an order by a higher court directing a lower court, tribunal, or public authority to send the record in a given case for review. Quo warranto is a prerogative writ requiring the person to whom it is directed to show what authority they have for exercising some right or power they claim to hold.

The Deccan Plateau is a large plateau in India, making up most of the southern part of the country. It is located between three mountain ranges: the Western Ghats form its western boundary, and the Eastern Ghats its eastern boundary.
The Chota Nagpur Plateau is a plateau in eastern India, which covers much of Jharkhand state as well as adjacent parts of Orissa, West Bengal, Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
Malwa Plateau is a plateau region in north-central India. It is bounded by the Madhya Bharat Plateau and Bundelkhand Upland to the north, the Vindhya Range to the east and south, and the Gujarat Plains to the west.
The Bhander Plateau is a plateau in the state of Madhya Pradesh in India. It has an area of 10,000 km².

Amarkantak region is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhyas and the Satpuras, with the Maikal Hills being the fulcrum. This is where the Narmada River, the Son River and Johila River emerge. (Hence, option '3' is correct).
The Tapi River originates in the Betul district from a place called Multai. 

Nagarjuna Sagar is one of India's largest dams, built across the Krishna River between Nalgonda and Guntur districts in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. It is a major multipurpose project providing irrigation and hydroelectric power.

The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which change in with the altitude.

Correct Answer: Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Statement 1 is correct because by hoarding essential commodities or by creating man made shortage leads to lesser availability, which ultimately leads to demand-pull inflation.
Statement 2 is correct. Fall in production decrease in supply over demand.
Statement 3 is correct. Lack of proper storage facility leads to decrease in availability of the goods.
Statement 4 is correct. Increase in demand over supply also leads to demand-pull inflation.

The regions which have 10-20 cm rainfall in October and November and less than 5 cm in rest of the months belong to Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh.

Koradi Power Plant is located in Maharashtra.

The Gutenberg Discontinuity is the boundary, as detected by changes in seismic waves, between the Earth's lower mantle and the outer core about 1800 miles below the surface.
 

Vishakhapatnam is located on the same longitude as that used as reference for Indian Standard Time.

Statement 1 is wrong as the Strait of Hormuz is between the Gulf of Oman in the south-east and the Persian Gulf.
Statement 2 is wrong as on the north coast is Iran and on the south coast is the United and Musandam, an enclave of Oman.
Statement 3 is correct. In military strategy, a choke point is a geographical feature on land such as a valley, defile or a bridge, or at sea such as a strait which an armed force is forced to pass, sometimes on a substantially narrower front, and therefore greatly decreasing its combat power, in order to reach its objective. Strait of Hormuz is one such choke point.
Hence, option '3' is correct.

Kayals are the shallow lagoons and backwaters along the west coast of India.
Seasonal streams that flow through the Shiwaliks are called Chos.

A rift valley is linear-shaped lowland between highlands or mountain ranges created by the action of a geologic rift or fault. This action is manifest as crustal extension, a spreading apart of the surface which is subsequently further deepened by the forces of erosion. When the tensional forces are strong enough to cause the plate to split apart, it will do so such that a center block will drop down relative to its flanking blocks.
The largest freshwater lakes in the world are all located in rift valleys.
The most extensive rift valley is located along the crest of the mid-ocean ridge system and is the result of sea floor spreading. Examples of this type of rift include the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the East Pacific Rise. 

The Horn of Africa is a peninsula in East Africa that juts hundreds of kilometers into the Arabian Sea and lies along the southern side of the Gulf of Aden. It is the easternmost projection of the African continent. The Horn of Africa denotes the region containing the countries of Eritrea, Djibouti, Ethiopia and Somalia.

The salinity of seawater is usually 35 parts per thousand in most marine areas. This salinity measurement is a total of all the salts that are dissolved in the water. Evaporation of ocean water and formation of sea ice both increase the salinity of the ocean. Ocean salinity decreases from equator towards poles. Reason is that the evaporation rate is high at the equator.  

Kara Kum is a desert in Central Asia (literally,'black sands').
Panj River is a tributary of Oxus.
Kyzyl-Suu is another name for Vakhsh river, another tributary of Oxus.

Ocean acidification is the decrease in the pH and increase in acidity of the Earth's oceans caused by the uptake of anthropogenic carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere. About a quarter of the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere goes into the oceans, where it forms carbonic acid.
Statement 1 is wrong as ocean acidification allows sound to propagate, further increasing ocean noise and impacting animals that use sound for echolocation or communication.
Statement 2 is wrong because when ocean pH falls, the concentration of carbonate ions get under saturated and structures made of calcium carbonate become vulnerable to dissolution. Species like shellfish and pteropods experience dissolution when exposed to elevated CO₂.
Hence, option '4' is correct.

Increase of concentration of hydrogen ions in the soil is known as soil acidification. The main cause of soil acidification is inefficient use of nitrogen fertilizer. Heavy rainfall may also lead to soil acidification as the bases in soils are washed away. Shifting cultivation does not lead to soil acidification, although it leads to generating infertile soil. 

Statement 1 is wrong as the National Wasteland Development Board comes under the Ministry of Rural Areas and Employment. Wasteland is the land that is adversely affected by water erosion, wind erosion, shift cultivation, etc.
Statement 2 is wrong as the Integrated Wasteland Development Project is for the development of non-forest wastelands.
Statement 3 is correct as there are two types of wastelands:

1. Cultivable wastelands that include surface water logged laterite and saline lands.
2. Uncultivable lands that include rocky lands and snow capped mountains.
   Statement 4 is wrong as stated in above reason.
   Hence, only statement 3 is correct and therefore, the correct option is 1.

The boundary line between USA and Canada is known as 49^th parallel. 

With a length of 1465 km, river Godavari is the second longest river in India, second only to river Ganges, and the longest in southern India. For this, it is also known as “Dakshin Ganga”.

The development of vegetation community in any ecosystem is affected by all the given components. As sunlight helps in photosynthesis, soil provides minerals, water etc. Human activities can alter or fully destroy a vegetation community.

Primary productivity is high in eutrophic water bodies. Due to excessive nutrients, especially nitrogen and phosphorus, these water bodies are able to support an abundance of aquatic plants, thereby leading to a high primary productivity. Because of abundance of aquatic plants and algae, the oxygen availability decreases. When organisms (like aquatic plants and algae) die, they consume the oxygen in the body of water, thereby creating the state of hypoxia.

Options 1 and 2 are incorrect as:
Bio-fuels may lead to monoculture which refers to practice of producing the same crops year after year. Thus, they do not increase agricultural diversity. Also bio-fuels are produced from crops and these crops need fertilizers to grow better. Thus, they do not reduce the use of fertilizer.

Only option 3 is correct as:
Biofuels are renewable source and this is their advantage compared to non-renewable fossil fuels.

In ecology, the term “standing crop” signifies t<span style="font-family:" arial;="" font-size:="" small;="">he total biomass of whole organic matter of an ecosystem.

The great Indian bustards have been vanishing over the years due to habitat loss. Thar Desert is the only landscape in the world that provides viable breeding population to great Indian bustards. While changing lifestyle in the desert and uncontrollable human activities have endangered the species, thousands of windmills around the park are posing a serious threat to the great Indian bustard.

Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary (PNP) is a protected area in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in Kerala, south India. Bandipur National Park, established in 1973 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national park located in the south Indian state of Karnataka. The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. It is 40 km² in area, the only floating park in the world, located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.

Bio-fertilizers provide eco-friendly organic agro-input and are more cost-effective than chemical fertilizers. Bio-fertilizers such as Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Azospirilium and blue green algae (BGA) have been in use for a long time. Ammonium nitrate is an example of chemical fertilizer.

Statement 1 is wrong because yellow rust is the appearance of yellow-coloured stripes produced parallel along the venations of each leaf blade due to the presence of uredinia, a class of fungi in the wheat plants. This disease is found in wheat grown in cooler environments. It can be controlled by breeding resistant varieties
Statement 2 is wrong because wheat is a rabi crop. Rabi crops are sown in autumn and harvested in the winter season. They include wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Kharif crops are sown in rainy season. They include Millets (Bajra and Jowar), Paddy (Rice), Maize, Moong (Pulses), Groundnut, Red Chillies, Cotton, Soyabean, Sugarcane and Turmeric.
Hence, both statements are wrong.

According to MOEF, headed by Jairam Ramesh (now Union Minister of Rural Development), a 'no-go' zone is a densely forested area where mining will not be allowed at any cost.
Thirty-five per cent of coal mining areas fall in "no-go areas" where mining will not be allowed.  

Increased UV radiations result in reduced growth, photosynthesis and flowering as increased UV radiations (due to ozone depletion) would make it difficult for leaves of green plants to exchange gases with the atmosphere.
Due to increased temperature consequent upon increased UV radiation, the evaporation rate of surface water will increase and soil moisture would decrease leading to drying of agricultural crops and hence reduced yield.

Statements 3 and 5 are true with respect to another radioactive element, Iodine-129.

Explanation

• Diphtheria is an upper respiratory tract illness caused by the bacterium 'Corynebacterium diphtheriae'. Because of widespread and routine childhood DPT immunizations, diphtheria is now rare in many parts of the world.
• Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious bacterial disease caused by the bacterium 'Bordetella pertussis'. In some countries, this disease is called the 100 days' cough.
• Tetanus is a condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of skeletal muscle fibers caused by the bacterium 'Clostridium tetani'.

A computed tomography (CT) scanner uses X-rays, a type of ionizing radiation, to acquire images, making it a good tool for examining tissue composed of elements of a higher atomic number than the tissue surrounding them, such as bone and calcifications (calcium based tissues) within the body. MRI, on the other hand, uses non-ionizing radio frequency (RF) signals to acquire its images and is best suited for soft tissue. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)
MRI is also best suited for cases when a patient is to undergo the exam several times successively in the short term, because, unlike CT, it does not expose the patient to the hazards of ionizing radiation. (Hence, statement 2 is also correct.)

Quebaracho is known as 'Axe-breaker'. Quebracho is a common name in Spanish to describe very hard wood tree species. The etymology of the name derived from quiebrahacha meaning axe-breaker.

Thyroid is a butterfly-shaped gland in the lower front part of the neck. It controls metabolism and keeps the functioning of whole body properly. The thyroid gland controls how quickly the body uses energy, makes proteins, and controls how sensitive the body is to other hormones.
Adrenal glands, also known as suprarenal glands, are triangular-shaped glands located on top of each kidney. They are chiefly responsible for releasing hormones in response to stress through the synthesis of corticosteroids such as cortisol and catecholamines such as epinephrine. The adrenal glands affect the functioning of kidney through the secretion of aldosterone, a hormone involved in regulating the osmolarity of blood plasma.
Pituitary gland is master endocrine gland in vertebrate animals. The hormones secreted by the pituitary stimulate and control the functioning of almost all the other endocrine glands in the body. Pituitary hormones also promote growth and control the water balance of the body.
The pineal gland is a small endocrine gland in the vertebrate brain. It produces the serotonin derivative melatonin, a hormone that affects the modulation of wake/sleep patterns and seasonal functions.

A convex lens of focal length 5 cm is preferred to read small letters of dictionary. To view the small letters in a dictionary, a convex lens of small focal length is suitable. This is because for working as a simple microscope, convex lens of small focal length is needed. The image is formed at the near point (D = 25 cm) for easy viewing.

Accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in the blood is an indication that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Kidneys play a critical role not only in excreting waste products, but also in maintaining electrolyte and water balance. As kidney function declines, nitrogenous waste products, i.e. blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatinine accumulate.

Genome composition is used to describe the make up of contents of a haploid genome, which should include genome size, proportions of non-repetitive DNA and repetitive DNA in details. By comparing the genome compositions between genomes, scientists can better understand the evolutionary history of a given genome. In prokaryotes, most of the genome (85-90%) is non-repetitive DNA, which means coding DNA mainly forms it, while non-coding regions only take a small part. On the contrary, eukaryotes have the feature of exon-intron organization of protein coding genes; the variation of repetitive DNA content in eukaryotes is also extremely high. When referring to mammals and plants, the major part of genome is composed by repetitive DNA.

Statement 1 is correct. According to World Health Organization (WHO), smallpox has been completely eradicated worldwide.
Statement 2 is also correct. BCG vaccine is used to protect against tuberculosis.

The water and minerals absorbed by the roots of tall trees ascend to the highest aerial parts against the gravitational force as root pressure helps this process of ascent of sap in tall trees. As a result of transpiration pull, the water column found in xylem elements is virtually pulled upwards and outwards from one end, but the same water column is also subjected to another opposing force called gravitational pull. 

The correct order is:
(1) Antacids - (b) Treatment of acidity
(2) Tranquillizers - (c) Treatment of stress
(3) Analgesics – (a) Pain killing effect
(4) Antihistamines – (d) To get relief from different types of allergies