Legal and Regulatory Aspects of Bank - 2 (JAIIB)

(JAIIB) Mock - 1 (Legal & Regulatory Aspects of Bank)

120 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, banks are required to maintain record of cash transactions of the value of

  1. Rs. 50000 and above
  2. Rs. 1 lac and above
  3. Rs. 10 lac and above
  4. above Rs. 10 lac
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 49-A of Banking Regulation Act makes provisions for which of the following?

(a) Declaration of bank rate
(b) Restrictions on the type of business that the banks cannot undertake
(c) No person other than a bank is authorised to accept deposits withdrawable by cheque
(d) Acceptance of deposits by banks

  1. Only (a)
  2. Only (a) and (c)
  3. Only (c)
  4. Only (b)
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Banks can undertake permitted business activities u/s 6 (1) of Banking Regulation Act such as

(a) buying or selling of bullion
(b) undertaking and executing trusts
(c) undertaking the administration of estates as executors and trustees
(d) providing of safe deposit vaults

  1. (a), (b) and (c) only
  2. (b), (c) and (d) only
  3. (a), (c) and (d) only
  4. All of the above
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A bank has to file a suit on the basis of a promissory note dated September 22, 2006. The bank made the demand for payment on November 10, 2006. The suit can be filed latest by

  1. November 09, 2009
  2. September 22, 2009
  3. September 21, 2009
  4. November 10, 2009
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

RBI can make application to High Court for winding up of a banking company if

(a) government directs RBI to do so
(b) company fails to maintain minimum paid-up capital and reserves as per Sec 11 of BR Act
(c) RBI has prohibited the bank to accept fresh deposits u/s 35-4 of BR Act
(d) bank has failed to remain entitled to carry on banking activities

  1. Only (a), (b) and (d)
  2. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  3. (b), (c) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The ‘fit and proper’ criterion is used by companies

  1. while conducting the shareholders’ meeting
  2. while appointing directors
  3. while appointing the managing director
  4. passing resolutions by the board members
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 45s of RBI Act relates to which of the following?

  1. Prohibits unincorporated association of persons from accepting deposits from public
  2. Prohibits banks from accepting deposits from public
  3. Allows government companies to accept deposits from public
  4. Restricts the banks to pay counter interest
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If a securitisation company fails to comply with RBI guidelines, under SARFAESI Act, who can impose penalties and up to what extent?

  1. RBI, fine up to Rs. 5 lac and if default continues, Rs. 10000 per day
  2. SEBI, fine up to Rs. 5 lac
  3. RBI, fine up to Rs. 1 lac
  4. SEBI, fine up to Rs. 5 lac and if default continues, Rs. 10000 per day
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

  1. Section-8 of Banking Regulation Act : prohibitions for a banking company for trading activities
  2. Section-9 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 : holding immovable property for period exceeding 7 years, except for its own use
  3. Section 10(1) of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 : banking company shall employ or be managed by a managing agent
  4. Section 5(0) of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 : Central Government has the authority to specify the activities that can be undertaken by a bank
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Regional rural banks are

  1. cooperative societies
  2. companies created under Companies Act
  3. body corporates created under a special statute
  4. public sector undertakings of the Central Government
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The major objective of formation of RBI by enacting RBI Act, 1934 was to

(a) regulate the issue of bank notes
(b) keep reserves for securing monetary stability in India
(c) operate the currency and credit system of India
(d) keep control over the capital market and foreign exchange markets

  1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  2. Only (b), (c) and (d)
  3. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 6(1)(o) of Banking Regulation Act deals with which of the following aspects?

  1. RBI powers to recommend amalgamation of a bank
  2. Central Government authority to notify other forms of business of a banking company
  3. Central Government authority to order merger of a bank
  4. RBI powers to supersede the management of a bank
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For determining the advance amount, the valuation of the shares will be done on the basis of

  1. face value of the share
  2. average price for the last 12 months
  3. market price of the shares
  4. average price for the last 12 months or market price of the shares, whichever is lower
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For banking business, the banking companies are licensed by which of the following?

(a) RBI
(b) Company Law Board
(c) Registrar of Companies
(d) Security and Exchange Board of India

  1. Only (a)
  2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  3. Only (a) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

RBI can issue direction to banks u/s 21 and u/s 35-A of Banking Regulation Act for

(a) Section 21 in public interest
(b) Section 35-A in public interest
(c) Section 21 relating to loans
(d) Section 35-A relating to loans

  1. Only (a) and (b)
  2. Only (a) and (d)
  3. Only (b) and (c)
  4. Only (c) and (d)
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If a borrower has been outside India for some time, for the purpose of calculation of limitation, that period shall be

  1. included
  2. included if bank could not prove his absence
  3. excluded
  4. excluded if the bank could prove his absence
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

RBI issues instructions on rate of interest to banks. The provisions u/s 21A of Banking Regulation Act relate to

  1. maximum interest rate ceiling imposed by RBI
  2. method for fixing BPLR
  3. rate of interest fixed by banks as per RBI guidelines are not subject to scrutiny by courts
  4. cases of NPA accounts in which interest can be debited only when it is recovered
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bank B sanctioned a term loan to XYZ, repayable in 28 quarterly instalments. The party did not pay few due instalments and bank wants to file suit. Which of the following is the most appropriate answer?

  1. Bank can file the suit within 3 years for the entire amount.
  2. Bank can file the suit within 3 years for instalments not paid from the due date of respective instalment.
  3. Bank can file the suit within 3 years for instalments not paid from the due date of respective instalment and also the balance amount, if the agreement provides for that.
  4. Bank can file suit for due amount and for the balance amount bank will have to wait.
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which of the following processes are non-liquidated financial assets (say NPAs) converted into marketable securities (security receipts)?

  1. Liquidation of NPAs
  2. Factoring of NPAs
  3. Securitisation of NPAs
  4. Reconstruction of NPAs
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

RBI can remove the chairman or director of a bank under _____ against which appeal can be made to the Central Government within ________ days from date of communication of such order.

  1. RBI Act, 45 days
  2. Banking Regulation Act, 30 days
  3. Banking Regulation Act, 45 days
  4. RBI Act, 30 days
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For an Indian bank, as per Section-11 of Banking Regulation Act, the minimum paid-up capital and reserves should be

(a) Rs. 5 lac, if the bank is having business in more than one state
(b) Rs. 10 lac, if business is in more than one state and includes Mumbai or Kolkata or both
(c) Rs. 2 lac, if place of business is in the state and does not included Mumbai or Kolkata

  1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  2. Only (a) and (b)
  3. Only (b) and (c)
  4. All of the above
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In computing the period of limitation, the day from which such period is to be reckoned shall be

  1. excluded
  2. included
  3. taken into account
  4. None of the above
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

_______ copies of balance sheet and profit and loss account, prepared by banks, are to be submitted to RBI within ______ months. Banking companies are also to submit three copies to

  1. 2 copies, 2 months, SEBI
  2. 3 copies, 3 months, SEBI
  3. 2 copies, 3 months, Registrar of Companies
  4. 3 copies, 4 months, Registrar of Companies
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Banks are required to obtain licence from RBI for commencing operation due to which of the following reasons?

  1. To make the provision of Banking Regulation Act applicable
  2. To prevent indiscriminate formation of banking companies
  3. To regulate the formation of a banking company
  4. All of the above
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

  1. Nationalised banks - Banking Companies Act, 1969
  2. State Bank of India - SBI Act, 1955
  3. State Bank Associate Banks - State Bank (Subsidiary Banks) Act, 1955
  4. RRBs - RRB Act, 1976
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The benefits provided by an employer to its employees attract payment of tax. It is called

  1. income tax
  2. perquisites tax
  3. fringe benefit tax
  4. super-benefit tax
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where a bank has been charging interest rate from a borrower at a rate prescribed by RBI, such rates of interest cannot be questioned in a court of law under the provisions of which of the following?

  1. RBI directives
  2. Section 16 of Usurious Loans Act
  3. Section 21(A) of Banking Regulation Act
  4. Usurious Loans Act, 1918
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The provisions of SARFAESI Act are not applicable in case of a loan account in which the amount due is

  1. 20% or less of principal amount
  2. less than 20% of principal amount
  3. 20% or less of principal amount and interest
  4. less than 20% of principal amount and interest
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

To fulfill its SLR requirement, a bank, among others, can invest in approved securities. It refers to the securities

  1. u/s 12 of Banking Regulation Act
  2. u/s 20 of Indian Trust Act
  3. u/s 18 of Government Securities Act
  4. u/s 343 of the Companies Act
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Name of a bank can be included in the 2nd schedule of RBI Act to make it a scheduled bank if it is a/an

(a) state cooperative bank
(b) company defined u/s 3 of Companies Act
(c) institution notified by the Central Government in this behalf
(d) company incorporated outside India under the foreign law

  1. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  3. Only (b) and (c)
  4. All of the above
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Lok Adalt is constituted under provisions of which of the following acts?

  1. Constitution of Lok Adalt Act
  2. SARFAESI Act
  3. Legal Services Authority Act
  4. Recovery of Debts due to Bank and FI Act
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Winding up means closing a company and settling the accounts.
  2. Moratorium means a legal authority to a debtor to postpone payment of dues for a specified time.
  3. Amalgamation means breaking a company into two or more parts for the betterment of the company.
  4. None of the above
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The SARFAESI Act provisions are applicable in which of the following cases?

  1. Creation of security interest in any vessel
  2. Creation of security interest in any aircraft
  3. Creation of security interest in land
  4. None of the above
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who performs the functions and exercises the powers of supervision and inspection of banks under RBI Act and BR Act?

  1. SEBI
  2. BFS
  3. Board of Governors
  4. Inspection Department of RBI
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Action under provisions of SARFAESI Act cannot be initiated by which of the following?

  1. Commercial banks
  2. Financial banks
  3. Regional Rural Banks
  4. Securitisation and reconstruction companies
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to publication of accounts and balance sheet of a bank?

  1. Publication has to be in a newspaper in circulation at the place where the principal office of the banking company is located.
  2. Publication should be within 6 months from end of the period to which the account and balance sheet relate.
  3. Publication can only be in a newspaper that is published every day.
  4. Publication is undertaken u/s 31 of BR Act.
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Majority of share capital in RBI is held by which of the following?

  1. Public
  2. Central Government
  3. RBI
  4. Financial institutions
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are correct regarding FEMA, 1999?

  1. It replaced FERA, 1973
  2. It extends to the whole of India
  3. It applies to branches of banks outside India also
  4. All of the above
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following provisions does not match in the context of loans by a bank?

  1. Banks cannot grant loans on the security of their own shares - Section 20 of BR Act
  2. Banks cannot commit themselves for granting loans on behalf of their directors - Section 20 of BR Act
  3. For remitting a loan in the name of a director, RBIs permission is required - Section 20-A of BR Act
  4. RBI can use selective credit control over banks - Section 36-A BR Act
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where a bank is wound up, the holder of a cheque (issued by a customer of bank having sufficient funds), becomes

  1. trustee
  2. beneficiary
  3. debtor
  4. creditor
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the cash reserve that is maintained by banks with RBI u/s 42 of RBI Act?

(a) It is called cash reserve ratio.
(b) It is maintained at minimum of 3% and maximum of 20% of NDTLs.
(c) No interest is paid by RBI on this amount.
(d) It is maintained as a fortnightly average balance with RBI.

  1. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  3. Only (a), (b) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

U/s 26 of Banking Regulation Act, the banks submit to RBI, a return on _______ basis, within _____ from close of the said period, relating to

  1. half-yearly, one month, inoperative deposits
  2. yearly, 30 days, unclaimed deposits
  3. yearly, 15 days, inoperative deposits
  4. half-yearly, 30 days, unclaimed deposits
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Banks submit various returns to RBI under RBI Act or BR Act. Which of the following is not one of such returns?

  1. Monthly return of liquid assets u/s 24(3) of BR Act
  2. Quarterly return of NPA advances u/s 42 of RBI Act
  3. Return of unclaimed deposits u/s 26 of BR Act
  4. Fortnightly return on cash reserves u/s 42 of RBI Act
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements are correct regarding acceptance of deposits by banks?

(a) Banks can refuse to accept deposit from undesirable persons.
(b) For opening an account, introductory reference is not mandatory.
(c) For opening of an account, identification is essential.
(d) Banks can accept deposit of money only.

  1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  2. Only (b), (c) and (d)
  3. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements regarding the inspection of banks are correct?

(a) RBI has the authority to inspect the branches of banks u/s 35 of BR Act.
(b) RBI can inspect the branches of banks u/s 35A of BR Act.
(c) Central Government can direct RBI to inspect the banks.

  1. Only (a) and (b)
  2. Only (b) and (c)
  3. Only (a) and (c)
  4. All of the above
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding balance sheet of a bank?

  1. For public sector, it is prepared as per 3rd Schedule of BR Act.
  2. For banking companies (private banks), it is prepared as per part I of Schedule VI of Companies Act.
  3. It is prepared on the last day of the financial year.
  4. The provisions for preparation of balance sheet are contained in Section 29 of BR Act.
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

What is the rate of service tax?

  1. 15%
  2. 12%
  3. 7.5%
  4. 14%
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Right to Information Act, the information that can be accessed should be held by or under control of

  1. government authority
  2. public authority
  3. public or private authority
  4. government authority, public authority or private authority
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following agreements with minor is/are not valid?

  1. Agreement for the benefits of minor
  2. Agreement for supply of necessities
  3. Agreement for enjoying luxuries
  4. All of these
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

One or more bank is merged with another bank or two or more banks decide to merge to form a new company. It is called

  1. merger
  2. amalgamation
  3. liquidation
  4. winding-up
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is false?

  1. Licence from RBI is essential to open a bank under Section 22 of BR Act.
  2. Every banking company has to use the word bank as part of its name.
  3. No company, other than a banking company, can use the word bank or banker as part of its name.
  4. A firm or group of individuals can use the words banking company as part of their name or for the purpose of business by giving a public notice.
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following conditions should be fulfilled for a bank to get protection against conversion of a cheque?

(a) The collection should be for a customer
(b) The collection should be of a crossed cheque, crossed before falling into the hands of the collecting bank
(c) The collection should be in good faith
(d) The collection should be without negligence

  1. Only (a) and (d)
  2. Only (a) and (c)
  3. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Transfer of Property Act contains provisions relating to transfer of

  1. actionable claims
  2. movable assets
  3. goods
  4. None of the above
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A bank is under obligation to make payment of cheque issued by its customer under Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. Which of the following conditions is incorrect regarding the payment of cheque?

  1. The parties must be certain.
  2. The funds must be properly available for payment of the said cheque.
  3. The signatures of the customer should be as per the records of the bank.
  4. Cheque should be drawn in one ink, one handwriting and one script
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A floating charge is a/an

  1. charge on all floating assets of the company
  2. charge at the time or before the company is floated
  3. equitable charge on all assets of the company
  4. None of the above
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a correct statement?

  1. Protection available to a bank for conversion is as per Section 10 of NI Act
  2. Protection against conversion for demand draft is as per Section 131 of NI Act
  3. Bank gets protection for conversion as per Section 131 in case of cheque and Section 131-A for demand draft, as per Banking Regulation Act
  4. Conversion means unauthorised interference in property of a third party
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is the objective of Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999?

  1. To conserve foreign exchange
  2. To manage foreign exchange
  3. To facilitate external trade and promote orderly development of forex markets in India
  4. All of the above
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is incorrect in the context of letter of credit?

  1. The party on whose request LC is issued is called beneficiary.
  2. The bank that makes the payment to the beneficiary against documents and claims payment from issuing bank is called negotiating bank.
  3. Bank that has the final liability on LC, if documents are received in order, is called the issuing bank.
  4. The bank with which credit is available is called the nominated bank.
Question 59 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is incorrect in case of contract of indemnity and guarantee?

  1. In indemnity, the loss is to be made good as soon as it occurs
  2. In the case of guarantee, surety’s liability is secondary and principal debtor’s liability is primary
  3. An indemnity is for the reimbursement of loss
  4. A guarantee is for bearing the loss that is caused due to the action of principal debtor or any other party
Question 60 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A bank guarantee has been issued by the bank in lieu of the customer being required to deposit cash security. Such a guarantee is called

  1. cash guarantee
  2. financial guarantee
  3. performance guarantee
  4. deferred payment guarantee
Question 61 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The sale becomes absolute in case of mortgage by conditional sale, when

  1. borrower makes payment of the due amount
  2. borrower fails to make payment of the due amount
  3. loan is re-structured
  4. limitation expires
Question 62 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under RTI Act 2005, the information can be taken in the form of

  1. diskettes or floppies
  2. tapes or video cassettes
  3. printouts or in any other electronic form
  4. All of the above
Question 63 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

XYZ created equitable mortgage in favour of Bank A on January 14, 2007 (not registered), a simple mortgage with Bank B on January 28, 2007 (and registered on March 12, 2007) and a simple mortgage with Bank C on Februrary 10, 2007 (and registered on Februrary 28, 2007). The priority of mortgage in this case would be in which of the following orders?

  1. Bank C, Bank B and Bank A
  2. Bank B, Bank C and Bank A
  3. Bank B, Bank A and Bank C
  4. Bank A, Bank B and Bank C
Question 64 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where forged notes or counterfeit currency has been used as genuine, record of such transactions is required to be maintained if the amount of such transaction is

  1. Rs. 50000 or above
  2. Rs. 1 lac or above
  3. Rs. 10 lac or above
  4. irrespective of the amount
Question 65 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following cannot be deemed to be a contingent credit facility?

  1. Letter of credit
  2. Bank guarantee
  3. Co-acceptance
  4. Overdraft which is not availed
Question 66 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is incorrect in case of hypothecation?

  1. It is defined as per SARFAESI Act
  2. The ownership remains with the borrower
  3. The possession remains with the creditor
  4. The creditor has the right to demand possession
Question 67 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is incorrect in the context of partnership firms?

  1. Partnership is registered with Registrar of Firms and not the partnership deeds.
  2. Registration of partnership firms is not compulsory.
  3. Registered firms have certain advantages over the unregistered firms.
  4. Non-registration of the firm adversely affects the capacity of the partners to carry on the business.
Question 68 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following can prescribe the nature of records to be maintained by a bank under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002?

  1. RBI and State Government
  2. Central Government and State Government
  3. SEBI and RBI
  4. SEBI and State Government
Question 69 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If a person seeks information from a public authority

  1. he has to give reasons for seeking the information
  2. he is not liable to give reasons for seeking the information
  3. if reason is given, it can help in quick disposal of the request for information
  4. information cannot be provided by the public authority without knowing the reasons for seeking information
Question 70 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a charge which is created by a company on its present or future assets and is not attached to a particular asset?

  1. Exclusive charge
  2. Pari-passu charge
  3. Floating charge
  4. Fixed charge
Question 71 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If a company does not want to include in its name the words ‘limited’, it can do so u/s 25 of Companies Act, 1956 after obtaining license from

  1. SEBI
  2. Company Law Board
  3. Registrar of Company
  4. Regional Director
Question 72 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following acts has not been amended to bring it in tune with the Information Technology Act, 1999?

  1. Indian Penal Code, 1860
  2. Indian Evidence Act and Bankers’ Book Evidence Act
  3. RBI Act, 1934
  4. Companies Act, 1956
Question 73 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

When a person wants to file a case under SARFAESI Act, it will approach _______ and for appeal, it will go to

  1. District Court, High Court
  2. High Court, Supreme Court
  3. Debt Recovery Tribunal, Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal
  4. Debt Recovery Tribunal, High Court
Question 74 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

SARFAESI Act has been declared valid by Supreme Court but it struck down Section ______ of the Act in the case of ______ vs ______, which provided for deposit of 75% of the amount due to the bank before approaching DRT.

  1. 13, Mardia Chemicals, ICICI Bank Ltd
  2. 17(2), Mardia Chemicals, Union of India and others
  3. 13, Mardia Chemicals, Union of India and others
  4. 17, Mardia Chemicals, Union Bank of India
Question 75 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

SARFAESI Act, 2002 is applicable to housing finance companies whose names are notified by

  1. Reserve Bank
  2. National Housing Bank
  3. Central Government
  4. State Government concerned
Question 76 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An un-registered partnership firm

(a) can file suit for enforcement of contracts entered into by it with third party
(b) cannot file suit on its own partners
(c) other parties cannot file suit on unregistered firm

  1. Only (b) and (c)
  2. Only (a) and (c)
  3. Only (a) and (b)
  4. All of the above
Question 77 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A private company has two shareholders who are also the directors of the company. They die in an accident. The

  1. company will be run by their legal heirs
  2. company will invite public to be shareholders who will choose new directors
  3. company will still exist
  4. advice of Company Law Board will be sought
Question 78 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under RTI Act, 2005, information can be accessed under control of a public authority. For this purpose, the public authority means any authority established by

  1. or under the Constitution
  2. any other law made by the Parliament of India or by the State Legislature
  3. any notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government
  4. All of the above
Question 79 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under RTI Act, 2005, the period for providing information is

  1. 5 days
  2. 1 week
  3. 21 days
  4. 30 days
Question 80 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is correct?

(a) A company can commence its business without obtaining Certificate of Commencement of business, if it is a private company.
(b) A company can commence its business without obtaining Certificate of Commencement of business, if it is a company without any share capital.
(c) A company can commence its business after obtaining Certificate of Commencement of business u/s 125, if it is a public company.

  1. Only (a) and (c)
  2. Only (a) and (b)
  3. Only (b) and (c)
  4. All of the above
Question 81 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. A partnership firm can be registered u/s 58 of Indian Partnership Act.
  2. Accompany is a legal person created through incorporation.
  3. Certificate of Commencement of business is conclusive evidence of existence of a company.
  4. Where two or more persons agree to share profit from business, it is called a partnership.
Question 82 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are correct?

(a) Certificate of Incorporation is the birth certificate of a company.
(b) Certificate of Incorporation is conclusive evidence of creation of a company.
(c) On the basis of Certificate of Incorporation, bank can open account without any other introduction.
(d) Certificate of Commencement is required both by the public and private companies.

  1. Only (b), (c) and (d)
  2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  3. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 83 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The lease for a purpose, other than for agricultural and manufacturing purposes, is deemed to be a lease from ______ and it can be terminated by giving ______ notice.

  1. year to year, 2 months
  2. year to year, 3 months
  3. month to month, 30 days
  4. month to month, 15 days
Question 84 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements are correct?

Where a company creates charge on its assets and fails to get the charge particulars field and registered

(a) any person interested in the charge can file and get it registered
(b) if charge is not filed and registered, the creditor becomes unsecured creditor in the event of liquidation of the company
(c) if the charge remains unregistered, the loan becomes due immediately
(d) it is responsibility of the company to file the charge within given time period

  1. Only (b), (c) and (d)
  2. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  3. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  4. All of the above
Question 85 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of these are correct for hypothecation as per SARFAESI Act?

(a) It is a charge on movable assets.
(b) It is in favour of secured creditor.
(c) It is without the delivery of possession.
(d) It gives right to the creditor to sell the assets.

  1. Only (b), (c) and (d)
  2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  3. Only (a), (b) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 86 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are correct regarding SARFAESI Act, 2002?

(a) It is applicable in the entire India, including Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) It provides for sale of security without court intervention subject to fulfillment.
(c) It provides for setting up of Central Registry for registration of securitisation transactions.
(d) It covers all types of loan accounts.

  1. Only (a), (b) and (d)
  2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  3. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 87 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In Mardia Chemicals vs Union of India and others case, the Supreme Court had decided that

  1. SARFAESI Act is fully invalid
  2. condition of deposit of 75% amount by borrower before approaching DRT against possession notice by banks, is invalid
  3. condition of deposit of 75% amount by borrower before approaching DRAT, against decision of DRT, is invalid
  4. condition of 60 days notice before possession is correct
Question 88 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 was enacted with which of the following objectives?

  1. To prevent money laundering
  2. To provide for confiscation of property derived from money laundering
  3. To prevent use of banking system for money laundering
  4. All of the above
Question 89 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following facts is incorrect regarding a securitisation company?

  1. It is a company registered under Companies Act.
  2. It has to obtain registration with SEBI for undertaking securitisation.
  3. It can set up a separate trust for different schemes of securitisation.
  4. Its minimum paid up capital is Rs. 100 crores and net worth is at least 15% of the acquired assets.
Question 90 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Before enforcement of security interest (sale of security), the creditor, to show his intention to take possession, is required to obtain possession of the security by giving a

  1. reasonable period notice
  2. notice of 15 days
  3. notice of 30 days
  4. notice of 60 days
Question 91 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is incorrect regarding lease of immovable property?

  1. The transferor is called the lessor.
  2. The transferor is called the lessee.
  3. The price in a lease is called the lease rental.
  4. None of the above
Question 92 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

As per prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, the banks are required to maintain record of specified transaction for a period of

  1. 20 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 5 - 8 years
  4. 5 years
Question 93 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where a company has been financed by a consortium of banks, the decision to take possession and sell the security under SARFAESI Act is to be taken by

  1. the banks having 75% share by value on the record date, in the consortium
  2. all the major banks financing the company
  3. the lead bank in the consortium
  4. the banks having 60% share by value on the record date, in the consortium
Question 94 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of following transactions does not require registration with Central registry under provisions of SARFAESI Act?

  1. Securitisation
  2. Reconstruction
  3. Creation of security interest
  4. None of the above
Question 95 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A customer files a complaint with the Ombudsman, which was rejected. Which of the following remedies is available to the customer?

  1. The grounds of rejection cannot be appealed against by the customer.
  2. Customer can only file suit in a court of law.
  3. Customer can request for review.
  4. Grounds of rejection can be appealed against within 30 days.
Question 96 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Registration of a partnership firm under provisions of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 can be with the

  1. registrar of firms of the area in which the business of the firms is conducted
  2. registrar of firms of the area in which the registered office of the firm is located
  3. registrar of companies of the area in which the business of the firm is conducted
  4. registrar of companies of the area in which the registered office of the firm is located
Question 97 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under provisions of Transfer of Property Act, subject to agreement between parties, a property can be sold without intervention of court if it is located at

  1. any place
  2. only Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata
  3. only towns notified by the State Government
  4. only Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata or towns notified by the State Government
Question 98 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is incorrect regarding banks that are required to maintain records under prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002?

  1. Nature of the transaction
  2. Amount of the transaction and the currency
  3. Date of transaction and the parties to the transaction
  4. All of the above
Question 99 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A suit has been filed by Bank-B in DRT located at place Z. Now the bank wants to transfer this case to another DRT located at place Y. It can be permitted by the

  1. High Court
  2. President of the DRT with consent of President of the other DRT
  3. Chairperson of DRAT having jurisdiction over both DRTs
  4. Chairperson of DRAT irrespective of jurisdiction over both DRTs
Question 100 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Recovery of debt due to banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 Section 2 (g) provides definition of ‘debt’. It does not include any liability

  1. inclusive of interest which is secured
  2. inclusive of interest which is not secured
  3. payable under a decree or order of a civil court
  4. recoverable by the bank from its employee who committed a fraud
Question 101 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is the period for DRT decision on the application filed by bank?

  1. It must be decided within 90 days from date of first hearing.
  2. DRT to make effort to dispose off the application within maximum of 180 days from date of receipt of application.
  3. It is binding on DRT to decide the matter within 180 days from date of its receipt.
  4. DRT is not bound to abide by any time limit.
Question 102 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If any false information is provided to the Registrar of Firms in connection with registration of a firm, the penalty is imprisonment

  1. up to 1 month or fine or both
  2. up to 2 months or fine or both
  3. up to 3 months or fine or both
  4. up to 6 months or fine or both
Question 103 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Any person aggrieved by the order of Recovery officer may appeal to the _____ within ______ from

  1. Appellate Tribunal, 30 days, receipt of copy of order of RO
  2. Appellate Tribunal, 45 days, date of order of RO
  3. Appellate Tribunal, 30 days, date of order of RO
  4. Appellate Tribunal, 15 days, receipt of copy of order of RO
Question 104 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For the purpose of application of Bankers’ Book Evidence Act, the bankers’ books include

(a) records kept as back-up
(b) records available as disaster recovery
(c) records on micro film
(d) records in physical form

  1. Only (d)
  2. Only (c) and (d)
  3. Only (a), (c) and (d)
  4. All of the above
Question 105 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Limited liability partnership is regulated under provisions of which of the following acts?

  1. Indian Partnership Act
  2. Companies Act
  3. Indian Contract Act
  4. None of the above
Question 106 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is correct in the context of Consumer Protection Act?

  1. Complaint can be filed by the consumer himself, as on his behalf no consumer association can file the complaint.
  2. Retailers who buy goods to sell to other consumers can file the complaint.
  3. The consumer courts are quasi-judicial in nature.
  4. Consumer Protection Act has been enacted to protect the manufacturers and service providers from the consumers.
Question 107 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

______ involves promotion of corporate fairness, transparency and accountability in the interest of all stake holders.

  1. Risk management
  2. Corporate risk management
  3. Corporate strategies
  4. Corporate governance
Question 108 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a mortgage suit, the preliminary decree becomes the final decree when the

  1. request is made by the bank as creditor
  2. borrower fails to pay the decretal amount
  3. court takes a decision on the basis of its discretion
  4. request comes from the bank and the borrower
Question 109 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The minimum number of directors required in a private company is

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. 12
  4. 2
Question 110 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following options is correct?

A contract is valid, if the consideration is lawful when at the desire of the promisor, the promisee

(a) has done or abstained from doing something
(b) does or abstains from doing something
(c) promises to do or abstains from doing something

  1. Only (a) and (c)
  2. Only (a) and (b)
  3. Only (b) and (c)
  4. All of the above
Question 111 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For actions of a partner in a limited liability partnership

  1. all the partners become automatically liable
  2. the LLP does become liable
  3. other partners do not becomes liable for one
  4. None of the above
Question 112 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a contract of bailment, if the bailee does something inconsistent to the contract, the bailor cannot

  1. demand the damages suffered
  2. void the contract
  3. demand compensation for any damage
  4. None of the above
Question 113 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The IT Act was introduced on account of the initiatives of

  1. IT industry of India
  2. Indian Parliament
  3. Reserve Bank of India
  4. None of the above
Question 114 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A lease for agricultural or manufacturing purpose can be terminated by the lessor or lessee by giving _____________ notice to one another.

  1. 6 months
  2. 15 days
  3. 10 days
  4. None of these
Question 115 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

XYZ were allowed certain credit facilities on the guarantee of G. Later on, the account was secured by equitable mortgage of the property. But for certain reasons, the bank released the equitable mortgage. When the account became difficult for recovery and money was demanded from G also, he took the plea that he stands discharged to the extent the value of mortgage, which has been released by the bank.

  1. Guarantor is not discharged as the mortgage was taken subsequent to the date of guarantee.
  2. Guarantor is not discharged as he is liable as long as borrower is liable.
  3. Guarantor is discharged to the extent of value of equitable mortgage, as bank has put the guarantor to loss.
  4. Guarantor is discharged since value of security in the account has come down.
Question 116 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

At least __________ of the total number of directors of a public company are to be persons whose period of office is liable to determination by retirement of directors by rotation.

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 7
  4. 2/3
Question 117 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A lease for an agricultural or manufacturing purpose is deemed to be a lease for

  1. year to year
  2. month to month
  3. week to week
  4. an infinite period
Question 118 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Right to Information means the right to

  1. inspection of work, documents and records
  2. taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records
  3. taking certified samples of materials
  4. All of the above
Question 119 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Public authority means a/an

  1. authority established by the Government
  2. authority established by law
  3. non-Government organisation
  4. authority or body or institution of self government established by Constitution
Question 120 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A bank can invest in the shares of a company as pledge, mortgage or absolute owner maximum to the extent of

  1. 30% of the paid-up capital of the bank or 30% of the paid-up capital of the company, whichever is lower
  2. 30% of the paid-up capital of the bank or 30% of the paid-up capital and reserves of the company, whichever is lower
  3. 30% of the paid-up capital and reserves of the bank or 30% of the paid-up capital of the company, whichever is lower
  4. 30% of the paid-up capital of the bank or 30% of the paid-up capital of the company, whichever is higher