CSAT Paper - 1 (Mock Test - 10)

Mock Test - 2 (CSAT Paper - 1)

100 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

With the current programmes in operation, India is poised to attain complete literacy by 2030, but these are certain alarming factors appurtenant to it.
(a) Learning level of children is abysmally poor.
(b) 2/3rd of children (7 - 14) could not read a story of grade 2 level.
(c) 40% of them could not do basic arithmetic operations viz. subtraction and division.
(d) The only consoling factor is that drop out rate at primary level is not high.

Which of the above you do not agree to?

  1. Only (a)
  2. Only (a) and (b)
  3. Only (b) and (c)
  4. Only (d)
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

What is the location of islets of langerhans?

  1. Part of the pancreas
  2. By the side of the kidney
  3. On both sides of lungs
  4. Below the right portion of the liver
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Tagore Commemorative Grant Scheme was launched by the Government of India to celebrate Rabindranath Tagore's 150th Birth Anniversary. The organizations eligible for grant under this scheme are

  1. all not-for-profit organizations
  2. all individuals as well as organizations working with the Ministry of Culture
  3. all religious, political and educational organizations
  4. All of the above
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bharat Nirman is a pan-India plan for creating basic rural infrastructure. Which of the following are the components of the plan?

  1. Road connectivity
  2. Sanitation facilities
  3. Water supply
  4. Telecom connectivity
  1. Only 1 and 3
  2. Only 1, 2 and 3
  3. Only 1, 3 and 4
  4. All of the above
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements about the changes proposed in the Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill is/are correct?

I. The corporate tax rate has been reduced.
II. Cess and surcharge on corporate tax have been removed.
III. The corporate tax rate will be the same for both Indian and foreign companies.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. III only
  4. I and III only
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following processes is/are performed by plants?

  1. Transpiration
  2. Respiration
  3. Guttation
  4. Photolysis
  1. Only 1 and 2
  2. Only 1, 2 and 3
  3. Only 1 and 3
  4. All of these
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The concept of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution originated from the

  1. Golaknath case
  2. Keshvananda Bharti case
  3. Minnerva Mills case
  4. Shah Bano case
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which Committee/Commission suggested a formula based on “consumption expenditure” for identifying BPL families in India?

  1. Tendulkar Committee
  2. N. C. Saxena Commission
  3. Planning Commission of India
  4. Wadhwa Committee
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following were the members of the Constitution Drafting Committee?

  1. N. M. Rao
  2. D. P. Khaitan
  3. S. M. Saadullah
  4. K. M. Munshi
  1. Only 2 and 3
  2. Only 2 and 4
  3. Only 2, 3 and 4
  4. All of these
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Government of India Act, 1919 further divided the central subjects into two parts – transferred and reserved.
  2. The transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor and his executive council; the reserved subjects were to be administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative council.
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both of these
  4. Neither of these
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are the reasons for India's burgeoning current account deficit in 2012 - 13?

  1. Inelastic demand for gold
  2. Excessive import of crude oil
  3. Fiscal crisis in European countries
  4. High inflation
  1. Only 1 and 2
  2. Only 1, 2 and 3
  3. Only 2 and 3
  4. All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements:

  1. In order to contain the problem of tax evasion, the Government of India had decided to introduce GAAR or General Anti Avoidance Rules.
    2. GAAR empowers the Revenue Authorities to deny tax benefits of transactions or arrangements, which do not have any commercial substance or consideration other than achieving the tax benefit.

Which of the statements given above is/are true?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Sunspots always appear in pairs.
  2. Mars takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the sun.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to Jainism?

  1. Adinath was the first Jain Tirthankara.
  2. The last Tirthankara of Jains was Mahavira, who lived from 599 BCE to 527 BCE.
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both of these
  4. Neither of these
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Sleeping on the left side is useful because

  1. the heart is found in the left side of our body cavity
  2. the left side is pressed and gives relaxation to the right side
  3. it gives maximum relaxation to the muscles of the right side and keeps the liver warm and relaxed, and improves bile secretion
  4. the organs of left side are smaller than those on the right side
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following was declared to be the first African-American and the first woman in more than a century to appear on US paper currency?

  1. Eleanor Holmes Norton
  2. Harriet Tubman
  3. Michelle Obama
  4. Barbara Jordan
  5. Shirley Chisholm
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The pentavalent vaccine administered by the government in Tamil Nadu provides vaccination against which of these diseases?

  1. Haemophilus Influenza B
  2. Tetanus
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Pertussis
  5. Measles
  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 2, 3 and 5
  3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following has not been a recipient of Magsaysay Award?

  1. Jayprakash Narayan
  2. T. N. Seshan
  3. Aruna Roy
  4. Harsh Mander
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following Indians was the President of the International Court of Justice at Hague?

  1. R. S. Pathak
  2. P. N. Bhagwati
  3. A. N. Mullah
  4. Shree Nagendra Singh
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are parts of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP)?

  1. Trishul
  2. Nag
  3. Brahmos
  4. Prithvi
  5. Sagarika
  1. Only 1 and 4
  2. Only 1, 3, 4 and 5
  3. Only 1, 3 and 4
  4. Only 1, 2 and 4
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where is Baikonur Cosmodrome Space Launch Facility located?

  1. Russia
  2. Kazakhstan
  3. China
  4. Kyrgyzstan
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Arrange the following Grand Slams in the chronological order in which they take place every year.

1. Australian Open
2. Wimbledon
3. French Open
4. US Open

  1. 1, 4, 3, 2
  2. 4, 2, 3, 1
  3. 1, 3, 2, 4
  4. 4, 1, 3, 2
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Chandragupta Maurya was the follower of which religion for major part of his life?

  1. Ajivika sect
  2. Buddhism
  3. Hinduism
  4. Jainism
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. SAARC - <st1:place w:st="on">Dhaka
    2. ASEAN - <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Jakarta
    3. International Committee of the Red Cross - <st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on">Geneva
    4. INTERPOL - Lyon<st1:place w:st="on">
  1. Only 1 and 2
  2. Only 2 and 3
  3. Only 2, 3 and 4
  4. Only 2 and 4
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements related to the Mansabdari System under the Mughals:

  1. During the reign of Akbar, the system of dual ranking was not in existence and hence, only 'Zat' ranks were given to the Mansabdars.
  2. The Sawar ranks were allotted to the Mansabdars under Jahangir for the first time.

Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements:

  1. It is located on the banks of River Vaigai.
  2. According to a legend, nectar from Lord Shiva's locks fell here, and hence, it is known as 'nectar city'.
  3. It served as the capital for Pandya Kings.

Which place are we referring to?

  1. Ramesvaram
  2. Sravanabelagola
  3. Madurai
  4. Mahabalipuram
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Kapila was the earliest exponent of the

  1. Samkhya School
  2. Vaisheshika School
  3. Mimamsa School
  4. Vedanta School
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the following:

 
List - I (Railway Zone) List - II (H.Q.)
A. North Eastern
            B. South Central
        
            C. East Central 
        
            D. South Western                                                |                1. Hubli
        
            2. Hajipur
        
            3. Gorakhpur
        
            4. Secundrabad                                                |
  1. A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4
  2. A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1
  3. A - 2, B - 3,C - 1, D - 4
  4. A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1935, passed after the deliberations of the third round table conference.

  1. The representatives of the Indian Provinces were to be elected and those of Indian States were to be nominated by the Governor-General.
  2. It introduced provincial autonomy and diarchy at the centre.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements:

  1. A small part of Mysore territory was put in the hands of the king of Wodeyar dynasty.
  2. The British signed a treaty with the new king of Mysore.
  3. Lord Wellesley constructed a grand mansion known as Government House.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bal Gangadhar Tilak published two newspapers,

  1. both in English
  2. both in Marathi
  3. Kesari in Marathi, and Mahratta in English
  4. Mahratta in Marathi, and Kesari in English
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

What is the name of the Panama law firm whose sets of millions of confidential documents, comprising detailed information on more than 2,14,000 offshore companies, were leaked in 2016?

  1. Ballard & Ballard
  2. Ruiz and Aleman
  3. Cambra La Duke
  4. Mossack Fonseca
  5. Squire Sanders
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In the light of events that occurred in the Karachi Session (1931) of Indian National Congress, find the incorrect statement.

  1. The resolutions on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Policy, which were drafted by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, were passed.
  2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was endorsed by the Congress.
  3. The session was presided over by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
  4. The goal of Poorna Swaraj was reiterated.
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which rocket laboratory coming under ISRO has manufactured the world’s lightest material called ‘silica aerogel’ which could prove immensely helpful in numerous usages including providing thermal resistance to Indian soldiers posted in the Siachen area?

  1. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
  2. ISRO Satellite Centre, Bengaluru
  3. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram
  4. Space Applications Centre, Ahmedabad
  5. Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre, Thiruvananthapuram
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The 5th schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states,

  1. Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
  2. Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
  3. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
  4. Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The main cause of Black Hole Incident was that

  1. the British Company supported Shaukat Jung, the rival of Siraj ud Daulah
  2. the British Company started making forts in Bengal without the permission of Siraj ud Daulah
  3. the British people gave shelter to a rich businessman who was demanded by Siraj ud Daulah
  4. the British Company was not ready to recognise Siraj ud Daulah as the Nawab
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following bills was not passed in the Joint Sittings of both the Houses of Parliament?

  1. Hindu Marriage Act (1955)
  2. Dowry Prohibition Act (1961)
  3. Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978)
  4. Prevention of Terrorism Bill (2002)
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which is the correct serial order of Alauddin's military expeditions?

  1. Gujarat, Ranthambhor, Jalore, Malwa, Chittor
  2. Malwa, Jalore, Gujarat, Ranthambhor, Chittor
  3. Gujarat, Chittor, Jalore, Malwa, Ranthambhor
  4. Gujarat, Ranthambhor, Chittor, Malwa, Jalore
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements:

  1. By the Regulating Act of 1773, the proprietary rights of the East India Company were safeguarded.
  2. By the Act of 1792, Governor General and Council were invested with power and authority to frame regulations for the provincial courts and councils.
  3. The Eighteenth Century India characterized the state incorporated in the ruler who led the army.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following commissions are constitutional bodies?

  1. National Commission for Minorities
  2. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
  3. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
  4. National Human Rights Commission
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following facts.

  1. Besides the Union Public Service Commission, it is mentioned in Article 315 of the Indian Constitution that each state must have an independent State Public Service Commission.
  2. The Chairman and members of UPSC are appointed by the Prime Minister of India and the Chairman and members of State Public Service Commissions are appointed by respective Chief Ministers of the states, as specified in Article 318 of the Indian Constitution.

Which of the above is/are true?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under which of the following Amendments were the privy purses of erstwhile rulers of princely states abolished?

  1. 29th
  2. 28th
  3. 27th
  4. 26th
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Treaty of Sreerangapatanam was signed after the defeat of Tipu Sultan in the Third Anglo-Mysore war. Between whom was this treaty signed?

  1. Tipu Sultan and Lord Cornwallis
  2. Tipu Sultan and Lord Minto
  3. Tipu Sultan and Lord Wellesley
  4. Tipu Sultan and Lord Canning
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which one of the following activities was common to both Sir Syed Ahmad Khan and Madan Mohan Malviya?

  1. Opposition to the principles of rule of majority
  2. Supporting the continuance of the British rule in India
  3. Opposition to the policies of Indian National Congress
  4. Establishing education institutions for higher education
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

All the tax and non tax receipts, recoveries of loans and other receipts which do not create corresponding payment liabilities are credited to the

  1. Consolidated Fund of India
  2. Contingency Fund of India
  3. Public Accounts of India
  4. Reserve Bank of India
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements regarding 'Sugar Pricing Policy' of the Government:

  1. 20% of sugar produced by mills is requisitioned by Government compulsorily in every season at fixed prices, which is distributed under PDS.
  2. Free sugar (80%) is allowed to be sold as per the quota released by the Centre under the Regulated Release Mechanism.

Which of these statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The objective of which of the following organizations is to promote cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers and has farmers as its main members?

  1. NAFED
  2. TRIFED
  3. NABARD
  4. PMFAI
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor?

  1. The corridor passes from Dadri in National Capital Region of Delhi to Mumbai Port in Maharashtra.
  2. The length of the corridor is the longest in Gujarat.
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which of the following Conferences of Parties (COPs) to the UNFCCC were the 'flexible mechanisms' of the Kyoto Protocol devised and adopted?

  1. COP-6, Bonn
  2. COP-7, Marrakech
  3. COP-8, New Delhi
  4. COP-9, Milan
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following multilateral treaties is to protect the cultural property in the event of armed conflict?

  1. Geneva Convention
  2. Hague Conference (1985)
  3. Hague Convention (1954)
  4. Basel Convention
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Expert Groups and their recommendations for estimating poverty and BPL families are given below:

  1. Tendulkar Committee recommended to adopt MRP based estimates of consumption expenditure as the basis for future poverty lines.
  2. S. R. Hashim Committee has been set up to review the methodology for conducting BPL Census in rural areas.
  3. An Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Dr. N. C. Saxena has been constituted to recommend the methodology for identification of BPL families in urban areas.

Which of these statements is not wrong in this context?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 3
  4. None of these
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

 
List - I List - II
A. Administrative Courts
            B. Ombudsman
        
        C. Procurator System
        
            D. Parliamentary Commissioner|    1. U.K.
        
            2. U.S.S.R.
        
            3. Sweden
        
            4. France|
  1. A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3
  2. A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4
  3. A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
  4. A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Justice Wadhwa Committee is related to the functioning of which of the following?

  1. Mid Day Meal Scheme
  2. Rashtriya Swastha Bima Yojna
  3. Indra Awas Yojna
  4. Public Distribution System
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are not the function(s) of the Food Corporation of India?

  1. To provide remunerative prices to the farmers
  2. To make food-grains available at reasonable prices, particularly to the vulnerable sections of the society
  3. To maintain buffer stocks as measure of food security
  4. To intervene in market for price stabilization
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 4
  3. 1 and 4
  4. None of the above
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The decreasing order of percentage share of child population 2011 in rural India is

  1. UP, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Bihar
  2. Maharashtra, UP, Bihar, MP
  3. UP, Bihar, Rajasthan, MP
  4. Maharashtra, UP, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the following:

 
List - I List - II
1. Article 25 A. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
2. Article 26 B. Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions
3. Article 27 C. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
4. Article 28 D. Freedom to manage religious affairs
  1. 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - B
  2. 1 - A, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - B
  3. 1 - A, 2 - D, 3 - B, 4 - C
  4. 1 - D, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - C
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The gas produced by ONGC and a part of gas produced by the JV consortia are marketed by

  1. GAIL (India) Ltd.
  2. ONGC
  3. OIL
  4. None of the above
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The factors related to location and relief features, which determine the climate of India, are

  1. longitudinal extent
  2. distribution of land and water
  3. distance from the sea
  4. altitude
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. All of them
Question 59 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

To which state of India does the Burrakatha folk art form belong?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Himachal Pradesh
Question 60 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

'Badland topography' is best exhibited in the form of the ravines cut by 'gully erosion' of soil on the banks of the river

  1. Narmada
  2. Chambal
  3. Damodar
  4. Barak
Question 61 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Renewable energy provides power from any source that can be replenished. In this context, which non-conventional sources have been harnessed from water for production of Renewable Energy in India?

  1. Wave Energy
  2. Ocean Thermal Energy
  3. Tidal Energy
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 62 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following regions of India has the potentiality of harnessing tidal power?

  1. Palk Strait
  2. Gulf of Khambhat
  3. Gulf of Mannar
  4. Kerala Coast
Question 63 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Red sanders is the species listed as endangered by the IUCN for its overexploitation.

Which of these statements about this species is/are correct?

  1. It is found in Tawakoni forest.
  2. It is found in Kadapa district.
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 64 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A canyon is a deep ravine between cliffs often carved from the landscape by a river. The Grand Canyon of United States in the state of Arizona is carved by river

  1. Mississippi
  2. Colorado
  3. Rio Grande
  4. Mackenzie
Question 65 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following facts is/are true about Decade Volcanoes?

  1. They are 16 in number.
  2. The Decade Volcanoes are identified by the International Association of Volcanology and Chemistry of Earth's Interior.
  3. Mount Fuji in Japan, an active strato-volcano, is classified under the Decade Volcanoes.
  4. These volcanoes have a history of large and destructive eruptions and are situated near populated areas.
  1. 2, 3 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 66 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following pairs is matched incorrectly?

  1. Hundru Falls - River Subarnarakha
  2. Chitrakoot Falls - River Indravati
  3. Pong Dam - River Ravi
  4. Bhakra Nangal Dam - River Satluj
Question 67 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria:

  1. It must contain at least 0.5% or 1500 species of vascular plants as endemics.
  2. It has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.

Which of these statements is/are not true?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 68 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are included among the mandates of the Zoological Survey of India?

  1. Digitalization of data on Indian fauna and making it available in a searchable format
  2. Taxonomic and monographic studies on selected animal groups
  3. Identification of Red List species
  4. Capacity building in nomenclature, specimen collection, preservation and maintenance through training programmes
  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 69 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements regarding Keoladeo National Park:

  1. It is one of the 'Ramsar' Wetlands of International Importance.
  2. It is a part of the UNESCO World Heritage List.

Select the statement(s) which is/are not true.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 70 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are biodiversity hotspot site(s)?

  1. Horn of Africa
  2. Northwest Australia
  3. Coastal regions of southwest China
  4. All of the above
Question 71 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

'Refuge' crops are non-Bt crops planted alongside Bt-crops by farmers to

  1. make soil more fertile
  2. discourage development of resistance in insects/pests against Bt-crops
  3. serve the purpose of subsistence for the farmers and their families
  4. cater to a wider market with both Bt and non-Bt varieties
Question 72 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The 'Montreaux Record' is a register of

  1. wetland sites under the threat of anthropogenic activities
  2. endangered species of tropical and sub-tropical fauna
  3. languages spoken in previous three generations of mankind and now extinct
  4. coastal cities under direct threat of consequences of global warming
Question 73 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following gases is/are responsible for the formation of brown haze dome above or plume downwind of cities?

  1. Sulphur dioxide
  2. Nitrogen oxide
  3. Carbon dioxide
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 2 only
Question 74 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Choose the best suitable statement(s) from the following about a balanced ecosystem:

  1. Number of organisms at all levels is equal.
  2. Amount of biomass at all trophic levels is equal.
  3. Organisms are independent.
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None of the above
Question 75 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Name of some nutrients are given below. Which of these can be provided by biofertilizers?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Potassium
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 76 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are the man-made causes of soil erosion?

  1. Use of improper ploughing methods
  2. Practice of leaving roots of crop in the field after harvest
  3. Practicing trash farming
  4. Use of heavy machines
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Question 77 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements about alachlor:

  1. It is a pesticide.
  2. It is used for the control of weeds and grasses.
  3. It is slightly toxic.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. Only 3
Question 78 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Excess of sodium thiopental in the body can cause

  1. Alzheimer's disease
  2. damage to the foetus
  3. hypertension
  4. headache
  1. Only 1 and 3
  2. Only 2, 3 and 4
  3. Only 1, 2 and 4
  4. All of these
Question 79 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

NATRIP is an organisation set up for which of the following?

  1. To support development of automotive hubs in the country
  2. To facilitate investments in road transport sector
  3. To promote auto-components industry
  4. To create facilities for testing of vehicles
Question 80 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following regions do not receive any rainfall during the advancing monsoon season?

  1. Lahul-Spiti of Himachal Pradesh
  2. Coromandel Coast
  3. Great Indian Desert
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 81 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Arrange the following countries in ascending order of their liquid fuel consumption.

  1. USA, Russia, China, Japan, India
  2. USA, Russia, Japan, China, India
  3. USA, China, Japan, India, Russia
  4. USA, China, Russia, India, Japan
Question 82 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Elisa test and Western Blot test are connected with the diagnosis of

  1. AIDS
  2. Cancer
  3. Leprosy
  4. Meningitis
Question 83 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The 'Gram Stain Test' is useful in classifying two distinct types of bacteria based on the structural differences of their

  1. cell wall
  2. cell membrane
  3. histone proteins
  4. endoplasmic reticulum
Question 84 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements regarding omega-3 fatty acids. Which of these statements is/are correct?

  1. Fish oil has become famous for its omega-3 fatty acid content but fish doesn't actually produce omega-3s.
  2. Their consumption may reduce the risk of coronary heart disease.
  3. They are essential fatty acids.
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 85 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Minamata convention : mercury
  2. Stockholm convention : persistant organic pollutants
  3. Basel convention : lead

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 86 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are not correct?

  1. Sundarbans are the second largest single block of tidal halophytic mangrove forests in the world.
  2. Mangrove forests have a great variety of trees.
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 87 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Why is 'heavy water' preferred to 'normal water' for using as a coolant in a nuclear reactor?

  1. Heavy water has a higher specific heat capacity than normal water.
  2. Normal water becomes radioactive on coming in contact with the fast-moving neutrons during fission process whereas heavy water does not.
  3. Heavy water can also be used as a moderator in the same reactor.
  4. Heavy water has more viscosity than normal water.
Question 88 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which pair is not correctly matched?

  1. Vitamin K - Beriberi
  2. Vitamin C - Scurvy
  3. Iodine - Goitre
  4. Iron - Anaemia
Question 89 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Fish plates are used in railway tracks

  1. to keep the rails equidistant
  2. to prevent tracks from being distorted due to temperature fluctuation
  3. to control the speed of the train
  4. to connect two rails
Question 90 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following were the reasons for the failure of the Second Five Year Plan?

  1. Suez crisis
  2. Chinese aggression
  3. Failure of monsoons
  4. Denudation of forex reserves
  1. Only 1, 3 and 4
  2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  3. Only 2 and 4
  4. Only 1 and 4
Question 91 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because

  1. their blooming is controlled by low temperature
  2. they are sensitive to the phases of moon
  3. the desert insects eat away flowers during day time
  4. the desert insects are active during night time
Question 92 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is /are correct?

  1. If the temperature of a semi conductor rises, its resistivity will decrease.
  2. Semi-conductors are used to split voltage between different parts of the electric circuit.
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 93 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following are the biological measures of soil conservation?

  1. Agronomic practices
  2. Agrostological methods
  3. Dry farming practices
  4. Basin leaching
  5. Contour terracing
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 4 and 5 only
  3. 3, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 only
Question 94 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Helium is used for respiration in deep water instead of nitrogen because it mixes lesser in blood than nitrogen.
  2. Hemoglobin has higher affinity for oxygen than for carbon monoxide.
  3. Helium gas is filled in chips packets to make them fresh for a long time.

Which of the given statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 1 and 3
  4. Only 2 and 3
Question 95 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Moisture-retention and self-ploughing are the characteristic features of which type of soil?

  1. Peaty soil
  2. Red soil
  3. Regur soil
  4. Laterite soil
Question 96 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following islands does the Ten Degree Channel separate?

  1. North Andaman and Middle Andaman
  2. South Andaman and Little Andaman
  3. South Andaman and Car Nicobar
  4. Little Nicobar and Great Nicobar
Question 97 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: The following item consists of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other labeled as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer using the codes given below.

Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape.
Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass.

  1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. A is true, but R is false.
  4. A is false, but R is true.
Question 98 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Bio-Resource Complex Initiative was undertaken by the Department of Biotechnology in order to

  1. create and recognize institutes promoting R&D in biotechnology
  2. utilize scientific manpower in the best manner to develop transgenic plant and animal species
  3. promote genetic engineering as a field of study in urban institutes
  4. utilize rural bio-resources in a more meaningful and sustainable manner
Question 99 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the following:

 
List - 1 List - II
1. Central Research Institute (i) New Delhi
2. Central Drug Research Institute (ii) Kasauli
3. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (iii) Lucknow
  1. 1 - (ii), 2 - (iii) and 3 - (i)
  2. 1 - (i), 2 - (iii) and 3 - (ii)
  3. 1 - (iii), 2 - (ii) and 3 - (i)
  4. 1 - (ii), 2 - (i) and 3 - (iii)
Question 100 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which of the following states are the Garhjat Hills located?

  1. Odisha
  2. Chattisgarh
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Madhya Pradesh