Legal and Regulatory Aspects of Bank (JAIIB)- 5

Legal & Regulatory Aspects of Banking

120 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following partners is liable in relation to the firm?

  1. Partner by holding out
  2. Secret partner
  3. Sub-partner
  4. Partner by estoppel
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The partnership deed must be properly drafted and stamped according to the provision of

  1. Indian Partnership Act
  2. Indian Stamp Act
  3. Indian Contract Act
  4. Indian Companies Act
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Rath of Cuttack orders Dinesh of Delhi to deliver 1,000 bags of goods (i: e. cement) to him at Delhi. While the goods are lying at New Delhi Railway Station, the station master informs rath of Cuttack that goods are held at rath's risk. But Rath has become insolvent. In this case

  1. Dinesh has the right of stoppage in transit
  2. Dinesh has lost his right of stoppage in transit
  3. Station master of New Delhi station has lost the right of stoppage in transit.
  4. None
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Co-operative banks operating in different states are registered under

  1. Co-operative Societies Act
  2. Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act
  3. RBI Act
  4. Banking Regulation Act
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which of the following forms of businesses may banking companies emerge?

  1. Acting as an agent for any government or local authority or any other person
  2. Undertaking and executing trusts
  3. Contracting for public and private loans.
  4. All of the above
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Banking companies are not permitted to give dividend until all _____________ are written off.

  1. bad debts
  2. expenses
  3. capitalised expenses
  4. amortisation of dividends
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are true with regard to the functions of central bank?

(i) Custodian of cash reserves of commercial banks
(ii) Custody and management of foreign exchange reserves
(iii) Clearing house for transfer and settlement.
(iv) Lender of the last resorts.

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iii)
  3. (iii) and (iv)
  4. All of these
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements are true with regard to statutory corporation?

(i) Generally financed by the central or state government
(ii) Can not recruit and appoint their employee with their service condition
(iii) Have a separate legal entity
(iv) A lot of government interference in matters of the corporation

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (i) and (iii)
  3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A Chairman who is appointed on a whole-time basis as a Managing Director of a banking company should not have ____________ in any other company.

  1. beneficial interest
  2. any interest
  3. substantial interest
  4. majority interest
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are not important regulations relating to acceptance of deposits by NBFCs?

(i) The NBFCs are allowed to accept/renew public deposits for a minimum period of 12 months and maximum period of 60 months.
(ii) NBFCs should have minimum investment grade credit rating.
(iii) The repayment of deposits by NBFCs is guaranteed by RBI.
(iv) NBFCs can offer gifts/incentives or any other additional benefit to the depositors.

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  3. (iii) and (iv)
  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Reserve Bank may issue directions to baking companies under Section 21 of Banking Regulation Act on

  1. audit
  2. advances
  3. capital structure
  4. None of the above
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The amount transferable to the reserve fund by the banks incorporated in India is _________ of the profit for each year.

  1. 25%
  2. 20%
  3. 10%
  4. There are no specifications.
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The term ‘loans and advances’ will not include loans or advances against

  1. stocks and shares
  2. life insurance policies
  3. government securities
  4. All of the above
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are false?

(i) The maximum period of office that may be held continuously by an ordinary director in a banking company is eight years.
(ii) The banking company or the person affected by the RBI order may appeal to the central government within 90 days.
(iii) At least 71% of the directors should have the qualification prescribed under section 10A (2) of Banking Regulation Act.
(iv) A director of a banking company should not have substantial interest in any other company.

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iii)
  3. (iii) and (iv)
  4. (ii) and (iv)
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Reserve Bank is empowered to conduct ____________ of a banking company under Section 35(1) of the Banking Regulations Act.

  1. inspection
  2. special audit
  3. audit
  4. None of the above
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

______________ may apply to the High Court for winding up of a banking company under Section 38 of the Banking Regulations Act.

  1. Registrar of Companies
  2. Reserve Bank
  3. Central Government
  4. Finance Ministry
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which is/are not true with regard to Smart City Brake Support (SCB) exemptions from maintaining Cash Reserve Ratio?

(i) Demand and Time Liabilities in respect of their Offshore Banking Units
(ii) Liabilities to the banking system in India as computed
(iii) Credit balances in ACU (USD) Accounts
(iv) SCBs are required to include inter-bank term deposits/term borrowing liabilities of original maturities of 15 days and above

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (iii) only
  3. (iv) only
  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The State Bank of India has power to acquire ______________ under the State Bank of India Act.

  1. movable property
  2. immovable property
  3. movable or immovable property
  4. None of the above
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) A parent AIFI presenting CFS shall consolidate all subsidiaries, domestic as well as foreign.
(ii) The AIFIs shall not use the same format for CPRs purposes as their solo balance sheet.
(iii) In addition to solo level financial statements, the AIFIs shall also prepare and disclose consolidated financial statements.
(iv) The AIFIs need not to follow the guidance on specific issues with respect to certain accounting standards.

  1. (i)
  2. (ii)
  3. (i) and (iii)
  4. (ii) and (iv)
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A co-operative bank is

  1. created by persons belonging to the same local
  2. created by professional community
  3. created by people sharing a common interest
  4. All of the above
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Co-operative banks have to prepare their balance sheet and profit and loss account in the forms set out in the Third Schedule to

  1. Banking Regulation Act
  2. Reserve Bank of India Act
  3. State Co-operative Societies Act
  4. Central Cooperative Societies Act
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The law relating to the payment of cheques and protection to a banker is contained in

  1. Indian Contract Act
  2. Reserve Bank of India Act
  3. Negotiable Instruments Act
  4. Banking Regulation Act
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A customer is bound to inform the ____________ about lost cheque leaves.

  1. payee
  2. endorse
  3. collecting bank
  4. drawee Bank
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Section 131A of the Negotiable Instruments Act extends the protection granted to a banker while

  1. receiving payment of a cheque and drafts
  2. making payment of cheque and drafts
  3. endorsing payment of cheque and drafts
  4. All of the above
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a joint account, if one of the signatures is forged,

  1. the banker can make payment due to correct signatures of the one
  2. the banker cannot make the payment
  3. there will be an order from court
  4. All of the above
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The duties of collecting bank to claim protection has been laid down under the

  1. Indian Contract Act
  2. Banking Regulation Act
  3. Negotiable Instruments Act
  4. Banking Companies rules
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Payment to be made in due course

  1. not always be made to holder, but can be made to his agent or servant
  2. always has to be made to holder, but can be made to his agent or servant
  3. made to customer’s agent or servant
  4. All of the above
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statement are true?

(i) Central Government can acquire the undertaking of a banking company under Section 36 AE of the Banking Regulation Act in the interest of banking policy without any report from the Reserve Bank on the affairs of the banking company.
(ii) Central Government may make the scheme for carrying out the purposes in relation to the acquired bank after consultation of RBI under section 36-AF.
(iii) On the application of Reserve Bank, the High Court may stay the commencement or continuance of proceedings against any banking company for any period.
(iv) The Reserve Bank or State Bank or another person as specified by the Reserve Bank in its application before the High Court may be appointed as liquidator of a baking company.

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (iii) and (iv)
  3. (ii) and (iv)
  4. (i) and (iii)
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Individual borrowers are governed by

  1. Negotiable Instrument Act
  2. Limited Liability Partnership Act
  3. Indian Contract Act
  4. None of these
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In the absence of proper reference, the banker can be held liable on the grounds of

  1. negligence
  2. connivance
  3. crime
  4. arrogance
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A Public Limited Company shares are:

  1. Not transferable
  2. Transferable
  3. The Act is silent
  4. All the above are correct
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Private trusts are governed by

  1. Companies Act
  2. Partner ship Act
  3. Indian Trusts Act
  4. None of the above
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Cash Credit facility is a

  1. fund-based facility
  2. non-fund based facility
  3. both fund and non-fund based
  4. All of the above
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are false?

(i) The Central Board in discharging its functions shall act on business principles, regard being had to public interest.
(ii) The Central government is authorised to give any directions to the State Bank in matters of policy involving public interest.
(iii) The provisions of Section 42 of the Reserve Bank of the India Act relating to cash reserve applicable to commercial banks.
(iv) Every person who immediately before the appointed day is registered as a holder of shares in the Imperial Bank shall be entitled to compensation.

  1. (i) (ii) and (iii)
  2. (ii) (iii) and (iv)
  3. (iii) and (iv)
  4. None of these
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a Hindu undivided family, the business of the family is managed by

  1. Karta
  2. Proprietor
  3. Partner
  4. Director
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For delayed credit in customer's bank account, bank is not liable, if the delay is due to

  1. war
  2. damage of the bank
  3. acts of God
  4. All of the above
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A person promising to save another from loss is called

  1. indemnified
  2. indemnifier
  3. collecting banker
  4. paying banker
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The limitation for recovery of the outstanding amount in the cash credit account is ______________ years from the last deposit made by the borrower.

  1. one
  2. four
  3. two
  4. five
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

There are ___________ parties to a contract of indemnity.

  1. one
  2. two
  3. three
  4. four
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bills co-acceptance facility is a

  1. fund-based facility
  2. nbon-fund based facility
  3. Both fund and non-fund based
  4. All of the above
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Indemnifier's liability in a contract of indemnity is

  1. primary
  2. secondary
  3. collateral
  4. discretionary
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following can refer to a type of secured line of credit with a lender?

  1. Overdraft
  2. Cash credit
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None of the above
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The letter of credit is opened on the request of

  1. issuing bank
  2. applicant
  3. beneficiary
  4. confirming bank
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

There are ______________ parties to a guarantee.

  1. one
  2. two
  3. three
  4. Depends upon the guarantee
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In case of invocation of the guarantee, the authorised dealer bank should send a detailed report to

  1. Chief General Manager-in-Charge
  2. Foreign Exchange Department
  3. External Payments Division
  4. All of the above
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The bank who opens letter of credit is called

  1. issuing bank
  2. advising bank or the confirming bank
  3. negotiation bank or the nominated bank
  4. reimbursement bank
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The advising bank’s responsibility is to

  1. inform the issuing bank as to whom to issue the letter of credit
  2. advise the buyer the dispatch of documents by the seller
  3. inform the beneficiary/seller about the letter of credit
  4. None of the above
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Guarantee is issued in the favour of

  1. issuer
  2. banker
  3. indemnifier
  4. beneficiary
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

An instruction to the bank from an account holder to pay a sum of money to a creditor on completion of certain conditions is known as

  1. Guarantee Securing Credit Line
  2. Performance Guarantee
  3. Advance Payment Guarantee
  4. Conditional Payment Undertaking
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The confirming bank

  1. guarantees to undertake the responsibility of payment
  2. conforms the negotiation of the bills
  3. advises bank and conforms the Letter of Credit
  4. None of the above
Question 51 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Negotiating bank is the bank which

  1. negotiates the preliminary contract of sale between the buyer and the seller
  2. negotiates documents delivered to bank and verifies the documents
  3. guarantees the payment by the issuing bank
  4. All of the above
Question 52 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Reimbursing bank is the bank that

  1. reimburses the seller
  2. reimburses the negotiating/paying or confirming bank
  3. reimburses the buyer on the goods being found defective
  4. reimburses its branch
Question 53 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) There are three parties to a contract of indemnity, the indemnifier, the indemnity holder and the person on whose behalf the indemnity is given.
(ii) Indemnifier’s liability occurs only if the indemnity holder suffers loss.
(iii) Contract of Indemnity can not have all the essentials of a valid contract.
(iv) Indemnity can be treated as a sub-species of compensation

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. (ii) only
  3. (ii) and (iii)
  4. (ii) and (iv)
Question 54 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

___________represents the first beneficiary in their absence, wherein the credits belonging to original beneficiary is transferable as per terms.

  1. Advising bank
  2. Second beneficiary
  3. Primary beneficiary
  4. Reimbursing bank
Question 55 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A third party, mostly banks and financial institutions, gurantees the payments of the installments.
  2. This guarantee ensures timely payment of the instalments to the seller/exporter, failing which, the guarantee can be invoked and payment received.
  3. To understand better the deferred payment guarantee, it is necessary to understand how a payment is made in a deferred payment contract and how the same is guaranteed by a bank.
  4. All of the above are correct.
Question 56 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The maker of the bill is called

  1. endorse
  2. drawee
  3. drawer
  4. None of the above
Question 57 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bill of exchange means an

  1. unconditional direction to the drawer to pay the money
  2. unconditional promise to the drawer to pay the money
  3. unconditional obligation to the drawer to pay the money
  4. unconditional undertaking to the drawer to pay the money
Question 58 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bill purchase facility is granted in the case of

  1. demand bills
  2. usance bills
  3. tenor Bills
  4. term bills
Question 59 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statement is/are false?

(a) Banks (AD-1) are authorised to issue BGs on behalf of Indian agents of foreign airline companies.
(b) Banks cannot issue unconditional guarantees in favour of overseas employers/importers on behalf of Indian exporters.
(c) It will be important for the banks to carry out due diligence and verify the track record of such exporters to assess their ability to execute export orders.
(d) Banks can issue bank guarantee/Letter of Undertaking (LoU)/ Letter of Comfort (LoC) in favour of the overseas supplier, bank and financial institution up to USD 30 Mn. per import transaction .

  1. (a), (b) and (c)
  2. (b) and (c)
  3. (b) and (d)
  4. All the given statements are false.
Question 60 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Ownership of goods can be transferred by endorsement and delivery of

  1. right to money
  2. obligation to pay
  3. document of title to goods
  4. document of title to immovable property
Question 61 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Insurance contracts are contracts of

  1. absolute good conduct
  2. absolute good faith
  3. absolute good security
  4. absolute bad faith
Question 62 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Bills of lading, dock warrants, warehouse-keeper’s certificate, etc. are some examples of

  1. documents of title to goods
  2. documents of title to negotiable instruments
  3. documents of title to immovable property
  4. All of the above are correct
Question 63 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For a loan against fixed deposit receipt

  1. stamp duty is very high
  2. stamp duty depends on the loan amount
  3. depositor/borrower affixes revenue stamp on the reverse of the deposit receipt
  4. there is no stamp involved
Question 64 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mortgage is _____________ in the immoveable property.

  1. transfer of title
  2. transfer of interest
  3. pledge
  4. hypothecation
Question 65 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A mortgage where, without delivering possession of the mortgaged property, the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage-money is known as

  1. simple mortgage
  2. usufructuary mortgage
  3. english mortgage
  4. anomalous mortgage
Question 66 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mortgage, where the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage-money on a certain date and transfers the mortgaged property absolutely to the mortgagee is known as

  1. english mortgage
  2. usufructuary mortgage
  3. anomalous mortgage
  4. None of these
Question 67 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) The mortgage deed is the evidence of the interest transferred to the mortgage holder.
(ii) There are three parties to a mortgage.
(iii) A deed of trust involves two parties.
(iv) Preference shares have the advantage of a higher priority claim to the assets of a corporation in case of insolvency

  1. (i)
  2. (i) and (ii)
  3. (ii) and (iii)
  4. (i) and (iv)
Question 68 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Mortgage, where the mortgagor ostensibly sells the mortgaged property on condition that on default of payment of the mortgage-money on a certain date the sale shall become absolute is known as

  1. simple mortgage
  2. mortgage by conditional sale
  3. usufructuary mortgage
  4. anomalous mortgage
Question 69 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Limitation period for filing a suit for sale of mortgaged properties is __________ years from the date the mortgage debt becomes due.

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 12
Question 70 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Pledge means ___________ of goods for purpose of securing a payment of debt or performance of promise.

  1. setting off
  2. hypothecation
  3. safe deposit
  4. bailment
Question 71 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Hypothecation is an implied pledge in case where

  1. constructive possession of goods is given
  2. delivery of goods is given
  3. constructive possession of obligation is given
  4. None of the above
Question 72 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Lien is the right to deliver possession
  2. Hypothecation is the right to possession
  3. To constitute a pledge, delivery of possession to the pledge is necessary
  4. Pledge and hypothecation are the same
Question 73 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following persons can make a valid pledge?

  1. Owner of the goods
  2. A mercantile agent
  3. Co-owner in possession
  4. All of the above
Question 74 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Charge means which of the following?

(i) Interest
(ii) Right which a lender obtains
(iii) Right which a creditor obtains

  1. Only (i)
  2. Only (i) and (ii)
  3. Only (ii) and (iii)
  4. All of the above
Question 75 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Charges created by company shall be registered with which of the following?

  1. Registrar of Assurances
  2. Registrar of Firms
  3. Registrar of Companies
  4. All of the above
Question 76 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Under Companies Act, a charge includes

  1. mortgage
  2. promissory note
  3. bill of exchange
  4. letter of credit
Question 77 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Charge shall be registered within ____________ days from the date of creation of charge.

  1. 60
  2. 30
  3. 15
  4. None of the above
Question 78 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

After Mardia Chemical Case, the amendment made in the SARFAESI Act stipulated deposit of ________ amount before preferring the appeal to DRT (Appellate Tribunal).

  1. 50%
  2. 60%
  3. 70%
  4. None of the above
Question 79 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following regulates Collective Investment Schemes (CIS)?

  1. SEBI
  2. RBI
  3. Regional officer
  4. None of the above
Question 80 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Provisions of SARFAESI Act, 2002 applies

  1. to any moveable or immoveable security charged to the bank or financial institution
  2. to mortgage securities only
  3. where the security interests are created for repayment of financial assistance given by the bank or a financial institution.
  4. to the properties owned by the defaulter borrowers, but those that are not charged to the bank.
Question 81 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Can moveable securities in possession of the bank be sold by the bank without the intervention of the court?

  1. No, a court order is required to sell the security.
  2. Yes, bank can sell as provided in the Contract Act, 1872.
  3. Yes, as the SARFAESI Act, 2002 has made provisions to that effect.
  4. No, until the account is not declared as NPA by the bank.
Question 82 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

What did the Supreme Court declare as invalid in the Mardia case?

  1. Entire SARFAESI Act, 2002
  2. Creation of security interest
  3. Formation of Reconstruction Companies
  4. Condition to pay seventy-five per cent of the amounts as pre-condition while preferring appeal to the DRT
Question 83 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are the right(s) of the borrower as per SARFAESI Act, 2002?

  1. The borrowers can at any time before the sale is concluded, remit the dues and avoid loosing the security.
  2. In case any unhealthy/illegal act is done by the Authorised Officer, he will be liable for penal consequences.
  3. The borrowers will be entitled to get compensation for such acts.
  4. All of the above
Question 84 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

SARFAESI Act was enacted for regulating securitisation and reconstruction of ________ and enforcement of security interest created in favour of secured ________

  1. financial assets, creditors
  2. non-financial assets, creditors
  3. financial assets, borrowers
  4. non-financial assets, borrowers
Question 85 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

When any bank or financial institution obtains a charge against property, with the _____, the transaction will have to be registered under the SARFAESI Act, 2002.

  1. Central Registry
  2. ROC
  3. Registrar of Assurances
  4. Reserve Bank of India
Question 86 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If the borrower does not pay within ____________ days after notice by the secured creditor, the creditor can ___________ of the security.

  1. sixty, take possession
  2. seventy, take possession
  3. fifty, take possession
  4. twenty, take possession
Question 87 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

As per SARFAESI Act, 2002, security receipt is required when

  1. there is a transfer of receipt
  2. the RBI directs to do so
  3. the security receipt is not creating interest in a immovable property
  4. All of the above
Question 88 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Are existing or future receivables property?

  1. Yes
  2. No
  3. Yes, but if and when charged to the lender
  4. No, if hypothecated to the lender
Question 89 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For each asset acquired or to be acquired by the securitisation company or the reconstruction company, there should be

  1. separate scheme
  2. combined scheme
  3. separate and combined scheme
  4. None of the above
Question 90 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a function of a securitisation company?

  1. Acquisition of loan transaction from the lender
  2. Help the lender in recovery by sale of charge property
  3. Take legal steps against the defaulter borrower on behalf of the lender
  4. Acquisition of financial asset from the originator
Question 91 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

When the securitisation company or reconstruction company issues security receipts, the holder thereof is entitled to a ____________ in the financial asset.

  1. divided interest
  2. undivided interest
  3. divided and undivided interest
  4. None of these
Question 92 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The authorised officer shall serve to the borrower a notice of _______ days for sale of the immovable secured assets.

  1. 30
  2. 20
  3. 10
  4. None of these
Question 93 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

After application of the SARFAESI Act, the existing companies

  1. are automatically deemed to be registered
  2. are required to stop functioning
  3. do not require registration
  4. have to get registered within six months from the commencement of the Act
Question 94 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is a reason for the cancellation of registration of the securitisation company and reconstruction company without giving a hearing opportunity?

  1. The company does not keep accounts as per the RBI norms
  2. The company ceases to carry on the business of securitisation or reconstruction
  3. The company fails to hold investment from the qualified investor
  4. Any of the above
Question 95 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who has the power, by notice in writing, to recover any money from any person who has acquired any of the secured assets from the borrower?

  1. Deputy Manager
  2. Manager
  3. Board of Directors
  4. Board of Trustees
Question 96 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

On sale of security asset, the sale proceeds are appropriated firstly towards

  1. the satisfaction of dues of secured creditor
  2. the payment of dues of labour
  3. payment of cost, charges and expenses for the preservation and protection of securities, insurance premiums etc
  4. payment of legal costs incurred by the creditor for taking possession and for effecting sale
Question 97 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is not the change introduced by the SARFAESI Act in the law relating to creation and enforcement of security?

  1. Security interest is defined in generic term giving effect to substance over form to a limited extent
  2. Financial assets are not freely assignable
  3. Powers of enforcement of security interest have been given to the banks and financial institutions
  4. Take the matter before DRT for resolving issues raised in the reply
Question 98 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Is breach of RBI directives a punishable offence and to what extent?

  1. Yes, a fine up to Rs. 5 lakh and for continuation of the offence, a fine of up to Rs. 10,000 per day.
  2. Yes, by cancellation of licences of the company.
  3. No, these are the administrative directions.
  4. No, the Act has not provided for any punishment in specific.
Question 99 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Provisions of the SARFAESI Act are applicable to which of the following?

  1. Pledged goods
  2. Only mortgaged properties
  3. Securities that are not otherwise charged to the creditors
  4. NPA loans with outstanding above Rs. 1 lakh
Question 100 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The object of introducing the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006 is

  1. for effective monitoring of the NPA accounts in the bank
  2. to regulate the disputes amongst the banks
  3. to enable resolution of complaints relating to banking services
  4. for executing the orders passed by the DRT
Question 101 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

When do the rules framed by the Central Government get valid under the Act?

  1. After the appellate tribunal of DRT approves them
  2. When Supreme Court approves the same
  3. Immediately on framing of the rules by the Government and notifying the same
  4. When both the Houses of Parliament approve the rule so framed
Question 102 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Complaints relating to non-acceptance of small denomination notes by a bank can be made to a Banking Ombudsman because

  1. such small denomination notes and coins are to be deposited with the Reserve Bank
  2. they may be deposited with a bank having a currency chest facility
  3. the Banking Ombudsman can deal with the complaints under the scheme
  4. the complainant can seek no remedy at all through the Banking Ombudsman, but has to approach the consumer disputes redressal machinery
Question 103 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Can complaints be made against promises made by sales agents but not fulfilled by the bank represented by them under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006?

  1. No, complaint is not admissible as he is not the employee of the bank.
  2. The sales agent has no authority to make any promise and hence, the bank is not bound to fulfill them.
  3. The Banking Ombudsman can entertain the complaint under the scheme.
  4. Agency functions are outside the purview of the Banking Ombudsman Scheme.
Question 104 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Limitation period for filling of the review application against the award given by the Banking Ombudsman is

  1. 60 days
  2. 45 days
  3. 30 days
  4. None of these
Question 105 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

What is the maximum amount the Banking Ombudsman can award as compensation?

  1. Rs. 10 lakh
  2. Rs. 20 lakh
  3. Rs. 30 lakh
  4. No limit
Question 106 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

DRT Act is applicable only if the debt recoverable is __________ or above.

  1. Rs. 10 Lakh
  2. Rs. 15 Lakh
  3. Rs. 5 Lakh
  4. Rs. 20 Lakh
Question 107 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Can a customer, from whose account someone has fraudulently withdrawn money, make a complaint before the Banking Ombudsman?

  1. No, as the offence committed, is of criminal nature, FIR has to be filed with the police.
  2. Yes, but if the police authorities receiving the FIR permit filing of the complaint with the Ombudsman.
  3. Yes, as this aspect comes under the powers of the Banking Ombudsman.
  4. No, as the loss caused to the customer is of a civil nature for recovery, civil suit should be filed.
Question 108 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Can complaints be filed through an advocate as the authorised representative of the complainant?

  1. Advocates are not allowed to act as authorised representative of the complainant.
  2. Advocates can file the complaint, provided they have been given the vakalatnama by the party.
  3. Advocates can appear for the parties as they can present the case well before the Banking Ombudsman.
  4. Advocates are allowed to appear only if the party does not stay within the jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman.
Question 109 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A bank has allowed a current account holder an ad hoc overdraft of Rs. 15 lakh. That amount is now due. Is this amount recoverable under the provisions of the DRT Act?

  1. No, as it is not a regular loan.
  2. No, as only secured loans can be recovered under the DRT Act.
  3. Yes, as it is a legally recoverable amount by the bank.
  4. Yes, if the tribunal grants special permission to lodge the case.
Question 110 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Can Reserve Bank and the Central Government forward a complaint to the Banking Ombudsman?

  1. The right to complaint is given to the complainant only.
  2. Neither the Reserve Bank nor the Central Government has the right to refer the matter to the Banking Ombudsman.
  3. Reserve Bank and the Central Government are empowered to send the complaint received by them to the Banking Ombudsman.
  4. Only an individual’s complaint can be sent by the Reserve Bank and the Central Government.
Question 111 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Can the order of Central Government in the appointment of the Presiding Officer of the tribunal be challenged in any Court?

  1. Yes, before the appellate tribunal
  2. No
  3. No, unless the High Court permits it
  4. Yes, under Article 226 of the Constitution and only before the High Court
Question 112 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is correct about amount to be deposited while appealing before the appellate tribunal?

  1. No amount is required to be deposited until the appellate tribunal decides.
  2. Court-fee on the appeal amount is required to be paid.
  3. 75 percent of the amount determined by the tribunal is required to be deposited at the time of filing of the appeal.
  4. After admission of the appeal, 75 percent of the amount determined by the tribunal is required to be deposited.
Question 113 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A voluntary winding up may take place by passing an ordinary resolution in the general meeting if

  1. the period fixed for the duration of the company by the articles has expired
  2. the duration of the company has not expired and will not expire for another two months
  3. some event, on the happening of which company is to be dissolved, has not happened
  4. no permission but concurrence of High Court is required
Question 114 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In a civil suit, to which the bank is not a party, one of the parties has produced certified copy of books of account. One party to the suit wants to call the bank officer as witness to prove the contents of copy. Can it be done?

  1. Yes, as it is the right of the party to get reaffirmed in evidence.
  2. No, as the certified copy is a prima facie evidence that is admissible in evidence.
  3. No, unless the bank volunteers to do so.
  4. Yes, but if the court allows the application to call the witness.
Question 115 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

N purchased a draft from a bank favoring B. The draft is lost in transit and the first bank needs some formalities to be completed by N for a duplicate draft in lieu of the lost draft. Which of the following is correct if B decides to file a consumer case against the formalities as it is causing delay in payment to him?

  1. B cannot file a case as he is not a consumer of the bank and is not taking any service from the bank.
  2. B cannot file a case as he has not paid the demand draft commission.
  3. B can file a case as his payment is getting delayed due to the bank procedures.
  4. B can file a case as his money is lying in the bank and he is deemed as account holder of the bank.
Question 116 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who is the Chairman of the Central Consumer Protection Council?

  1. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
  2. Judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
  3. Minister-in-charge of Law and Judiciary in the Central Government
  4. Minister-in-charge of Consumer Affairs in the Central Government
Question 117 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following conditions is necessary for doctrine of election based on the principle of equity?

  1. The transferor must not be the owner of the property which he transfers
  2. The transferor must transfer the property of the other owner to a third person
  3. The owner must have proprietary interest in the property, a creditor is not put to election as he has only a personal right to be paid by the debtor
  4. All of the above
Question 118 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is/are exception(s) to 'no consideration, no contract'?

  1. Agreement on account of natural love
  2. Promise to pay time barred debt
  3. Contract of agency and guarantee
  4. All of the above
Question 119 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A contract in which one party wins and the other loses is called

  1. contingent contract
  2. wagering contract
  3. uncertain contract
  4. None of these
Question 120 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is not a feature of a company?

  1. Incorporated entity
  2. Separate legal identity
  3. Artificial personality
  4. Unlimited liability