Previous Paper - II (UGC NET (LAW) DEC 2014

UGC NET Law Paper II - December 2014: Comprehensive examination covering constitutional law, jurisprudence, contract law, family law, tort law, international law, criminal law, and industrial law.

50 Questions Published

Questions

Question 1 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Right in re aliena means a right over

  1. one's own property
  2. a property of someone else
  3. property situated in a foreign country
  4. property situated in one’s own country
Question 2 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Laws consist of rules in accordance with reason and nature has formed the basis of imperative law.
  2. Natural law is a type of command.
  3. Law, according to positivist, is made through medium of courts.
  4. Hart talks in terms of conduct supplemented by an attitude of mind to the effect that the conduct in question is obligatory because it is required by rule.
Question 3 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Possession is prima facie evidence of title of ownership. Hence,

  1. long adverse possession confers title even to a property which originally belonged to another
  2. in all cases, possession leads to ownership
  3. transfer of possession is not a mode of transferring ownership
  4. long possession does not confer title to the property which originally belonged to government
Question 4 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Ownership of goodwill of a business is

  1. a limited ownership
  2. a corporeal ownership
  3. an incorporeal ownership
  4. a beneficial ownership
Question 5 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: Read the following statements and give the correct explanation with the help of the codes given below.

Assertion (A): A perfect duty is one which a man not merely ought to perform, but may be justly compelled to perform.
Reason (R): A perfect duty is one which is not merely recognised by law but enforced.

  1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are true.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
Question 6 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following said that there is in essence no difference between the legal personality of a company and that of an individual?

  1. Maitland
  2. Dicey
  3. Gierke
  4. Kelson
Question 7 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following judges remarked in ‘Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab’ that ‘Preamble to the Constitution contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations’?

  1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
  2. Justice K. Subba Rao
  3. Justice A. N. Ray
  4. Justice H. R. Khanna
Question 8 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which among the following cases does the Supreme Court decide that the right of eligible employees to be considered for promotion is virtually a part of the fundamental right of employees?

  1. Union of India Vs. Hemraj Singh Chauhan
  2. Supreme Court Employees Association Vs. Union of India
  3. John Vallamattam Vs. Union of India
  4. St. Stephens College Vs. University of Delhi
Question 9 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which of the following cases are fundamental duties judicially invoked? Answer using the codes given below:

i. Prem Prakash Vs. Punjab University
ii. Suresh Koshy George Vs. University of Kerala
iii. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
iv. Shri Sachidanand Pandey Vs. State of West Bengal

  1. i and ii
  2. ii and iii
  3. iii and iv
  4. i, ii, iii and iv
Question 10 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In Vishram Singh Raghubanshi Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (AIR2011 SC2275), the court held that

  1. it is the duty of superior courts to protect the reputation of judicial officers of subordinate courts
  2. procedure be laid down in the appointment of officers of subordinate courts
  3. procedure be laid down in the salaries and service conditions of the judicial officers of the lower judiciary
  4. the judges of the High Court be transferred
Question 11 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Supreme Court has laid down guidelines for imposing emergency under Article 356 in which of the following cases?

  1. A. K. Roy Vs. Union of India
  2. S. R. Bommai Vs. Union of India
  3. State of Rajasthan Vs. Union of India
  4. Rameswar Prasad Vs. Union of India
Question 12 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following is not the exponent of constitutive theory of ‘Recognition’?

  1. Hegel
  2. Oppenheim
  3. Hall
  4. Anzilloti
Question 13 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which constitutional amendment mentions: “The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the people”?

  1. Ninety-first
  2. Ninety-second
  3. Ninety-third
  4. Ninety-fifth
Question 14 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Rules relating to spinda relationship are based on the principle of

  1. polygyny
  2. endogamy
  3. exogamy
  4. polyandry
Question 15 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A ‘Muta’ marriage is

I. a temporary marriage
II. recognised under Sunni law
III. recognised under Shia law
IV. for a fixed period

  1. II and IV only
  2. I, II, III and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II and III
Question 16 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct option using the codes given below.

 
List – I List – II
i. Executive power must be exercised in accordance with the Constitution. a. H. H. Maharajadhiraja Madhav Rao Jivaji Rao Scindia Bahadur Vs. Union of India
ii. Executive power is the residue of functions of Government, which are not legislative or judicial. b. Maganbhai Ishwarbhai Patel Vs. Union of India
iii. Executive power may be exercised without prior legislative support. c. Kehar Singh Vs. Union of India
iv. The President is not bound to hear a petitioner for mercy before he rejects the petition. d. A. Sanjeevi Naidu Vs. State of Madras
  1. i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c
  2. i – a, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c
  3. i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b
  4. i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
Question 17 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Statement – I: Subject to Rules of Jus Cogens, local customary law can supplement or derogate from general custom.
Statement – II: International law does not recognise the concept of local custom.

  1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement – II is the correct explanation of Statement – I.
  2. Both the statements are individually true, but Statement – II is not the correct explanation of Statement – I.
  3. Statement – I is true, but Statement – II is false.
  4. Statement – I is false, but Statement – II is true.
Question 18 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Divorce by Zihar is a species of

  1. actual divorce
  2. inchoate divorce
  3. khula divorce
  4. constructive divorce
Question 19 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

When two Hindus are descendants of a common ancestress but by different husbands, they are said to be related to each other by

  1. uterine blood
  2. half blood
  3. full blood
  4. fosterage
Question 20 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A decree of judicial separation

I. dissolves the matrimonial bond
II. does not dissolve the matrimonial bond but merely suspends marital rights and obligations during the subsistence of the decree
III. mandates that the parties still continue to be husband and wife but not obliged to live together
IV. provides that if the parties have not resumed cohabitation for a period of one year, either party may seek divorce

  1. I, II and IV
  2. I, II, III and IV
  3. I and IV
  4. II, III and IV
Question 21 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who is the propounder of ‘pigeon hole’ theory?

  1. Winfield
  2. Salmond
  3. Flemming
  4. Paton
Question 22 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct option by using the codes given below.

 
List – I (Principles applied by the Courts) List – II (Cases)
1. Law must be based on justice, equity and good conscience a. R. V. Keyn
2. Subrogation b. Chorzaw Factory (Indemnity) Case
3. Res Judicata c. Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
4. Estoppel d. Barcelona Traction Case
  1. a – 3, b – 2, c – 4, d – 1
  2. a – 1, b – 3, c – 2, d – 4
  3. a – 2, b – 4, c – 3, d – 2
  4. a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
Question 23 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In Jyotindra Bhattacharjee Vs. Mrs. Sona Balon Bora, it was held that

  1. the onus of proving soundness of mind of a person always rests upon a person who alleges such state of mind of another person
  2. the onus of proving unsoundness of mind of a person always rests upon a person who alleges such state of mind of another person
  3. the onus of proving unsoundness of mind rests upon person of unsound mind
  4. the onus of proving unsoundness of mind is on the judge deciding the case involving person of unsound mind
Question 24 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

For a valid contract, acceptance should be

  1. absolute and qualified
  2. partial but unqualified
  3. absolute and unqualified
  4. absolutely qualified
Question 25 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct option by using the codes given below.

 
List – I (Sources of Public International Law) List – II (Case related)
1. General principles of law recognised by the civilised countries a. North Continental Self case
2. Juristic Work b. Burkina Faso Vs. Mali
3. International Customs c. Portugal Vs. India
4. Justice and Equity d. Paquete Habaana case
  1. a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
  2. a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1
  3. a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2
  4. a – 4, b – 1, c – 3, d – 2
Question 26 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Revenue Inspector knowingly disobeys the direction to conduct enquiry at a place for demarcation. What offence, if any, has been caused by him under IPC?

  1. An offence as per Section 166-A
  2. For continuing to remain in an unlawful assembly as per Section 145
  3. For touching any point material as per Section 199
  4. For giving false information as per Section 201
Question 27 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Which of the following is NOT a sovereign function of the State?

  1. Construction of military road
  2. Injury to the plaintiff during the lathi-charge by the police to disperse the unlawful crowd
  3. A Government jeep being taken from the workshop to the collector’s bungalow for his use
  4. Distribution of meals to army personnel
Question 28 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The owner of a bus instructed the driver not to race and compete with other omnibuses on a particular route. The driver still tried to obstruct a rival omnibus and caused an accident. What shall be the nature of liability?

  1. The driver shall be liable for the accident because he did not follow the instructions of his owner.
  2. It shall be the liability of the owner of the bus because he has no authority to give instruction to his driver and his act was totally wrong.
  3. The owner of the bus shall be vicariously liable for the accident committed by his driver during the course of employment.
  4. Neither owner nor driver shall be liable.
Question 29 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

If a journalist publishes an article in a leading newspaper that all lawyers were thieves, no particular lawyer could sue him unless there is something to point to the particular individual. It refers to

  1. defamation of a company
  2. innuendo
  3. defamation of public figures
  4. defamation of class of persons
Question 30 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: Read the following statements and give the correct explanation with the help of the codes given below.

Assertion (A): A wooden chair, while being used by a guest, caused an injury to him due to defective manufacture. The guest is entitled to claim damages from the manufacturer.
Reason (R): The manufacturer owes a duty to take care only towards the lawful buyer under the Consumer Protection Act.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Question 31 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct option by using the codes given below.

 
List – I List – II
i. Ijma a. Cancellation of marriage
ii. Faskh b. Opinion of one individual only
iii. Mahr-ul-misl c. Collective opinion of commentators
iv. Qiyas d. Customary dower
  1. i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
  2. i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
  3. i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
  4. i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c
Question 32 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

A man has committed physical contact involving unwelcome sexual overture against a female. What offence has been caused by him under IPC?

  1. Requesting for sexual favour as per Section 354-A(1)(ii)
  2. Sexual harassment as per Section 354(1)(i)
  3. Outraging of modesty as per Section 354
  4. Attempt to rape as per Section 370(A)
Question 33 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: Read the following statements and give the correct explanation with the help of the codes given below.

Assertion (A): A legal right involves freedom from penalty.
Reason (R): A legal right is one which is either enforceable or recognised.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
  4. (A) is incorrect because (R) fixes liability when not enforceable or derecognised.
Question 34 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The maxim ‘ream linguam non facit nisi mens rea’ was propounded by

  1. Coke
  2. Lord Kenyon
  3. Augustine
  4. Lord Arbinger
Question 35 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who among the following moved a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly recommending that the Government should introduce a legislation for registration and protection of Trade Union in the year 1921?

  1. B. P. Wadia
  2. M. N. Joshi
  3. N. M. Lokhanddey
  4. V. V. Giri
Question 36 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

According to Explanation 2 to Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, which of the following statements are correct?

i. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is not freely given is valid because consideration is adequate.
ii. An agreement to which the consent of promisor is freely given is valid even if consideration is inadequate.
iii. Consideration must be legal.
iv. Consideration can be illegal.

  1. i and ii
  2. ii and iii
  3. iii and iv
  4. i and iv
Question 37 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

In which of the following cases can a child not be a ‘Hindu’ under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

I. Only one parent is a Hindu and the child was brought up as a Hindu.
II. If after the birth of a child, both the parents convert to Buddhism.
III. Only one parent is a Jain and the child was not brought up as a Jain.
IV. If after the birth of a child, both the parents convert to Muslim religion and in the exercise of parental right, the child is also converted to Muslim religion.

  1. I, II and IV
  2. III and IV
  3. II and I
  4. I, II and III
Question 38 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Using the codes given below, indicate the chronological sequence in which the following judgements were delivered by the International Court of Justice:

  1. Right of passage over Indian Territory case
  2. South-West Africa case
  3. Frontier Dispute
  4. Temple of Preah Vihear
  1. 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. 2, 4, 1, 3
  3. 1, 4, 2, 3
  4. 3, 2, 4, 1
Question 39 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Fill in the blank with an appropriate option.

Disobedience of law is not ordinarily a crime unless that act is declared as a crime by some ______.

  1. law
  2. method
  3. society
  4. All of the above
Question 40 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

“Works Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act should be substituted by an ‘Industrial Relations Committee’ to promote in-house dispute settlement.” This recommendation was made by

  1. Royal Commission on Labour
  2. National Commission on Labour, 1969
  3. National Commission on Labour, 2002
  4. National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector
Question 41 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct option by using the codes given below.

 
List – I
        <font face="Arial" size="2">    <b>(Provisions under Statute of International Court of Justice)</b></font>|<font face="Arial" size="2">    <b>List &#x2013; II</b></font>
        <font face="Arial" size="2">    <b>(Related Articles)</b></font>|

| 1. Binding force of decrees of International Court of Justice| a. Article 65|
| 2. Methods of conferring jurisdiction upon the court| b. Article 62|
| 3. Advisory jurisdiction of the court| c. Article 59|
| 4. Court's power to allow a state to intervene in case to which it is not a party|d. Article 36|

  1. a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2
  2. a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1
  3. a – 4, b – 2, c – 3, d – 1
  4. a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
Question 42 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Where a law promulgated after the contract is made makes the performance of the agreement impossible, the agreement becomes

  1. voidable
  2. valid
  3. void
  4. absolutely binding
Question 43 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Who is a protected workman under the Industrial Disputes Act? Answer using the codes given below.

  1. A workman who is a member of a registered Trade Union
  2. Recognised by the Registrar of the Trade Union as protected workman
  3. A workman who is a member of the Executive or other office bearer of a registered Trade Union connected with the establishment
  4. Recognised as protected workman under the rules applicable to the establishment
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 3
Question 44 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: Read the following statements and give the correct explanation with the help of the codes given below.

Assertion (A): Agreement is void when both parties are under mistake as to the matter of law.
Reason (R): Parties entering into a contract are legally obliged to know the law relating to the contract.

  1. (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
  2. (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
  3. (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Question 45 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct option using the codes given below.

 
List – I List – II
i. Damages arising in the usual course of things a. Ghaziabad Dev. Authority Vs. Union of India
ii. Compensation for mental anguish b. Hadley Vs. Baxendale
iii. Measure of damages c. M/s. Ganga Maruthi Vs. Nagaraj
iv. Compensation for breach of contract where penalty is stipulated for d. Jamal Vs. Moolla Dawood
  1. i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
  2. i – a, ii – b, iii – d, iv – c
  3. i – b, ii – a, iii – c, iv – d
  4. i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
Question 46 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The Indian Penal Code prohibits fixing of liability on a person so long he is authorised or gives assent to it. But there is an exceptional situation arising out of

  1. libel
  2. public nuisance
  3. contempt of court
  4. All of the above
Question 47 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Directions: Read the following statements and give the correct explanation with the help of the codes given below.

Assertion (A): The conciliation officer has no power under the Industrial Disputes Act when neither industrial disputes exist nor are apprehended.
Reason (R): Conciliation officer only investigates the industrial disputes which exist or are apprehended.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
  3. (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.
  4. (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Question 48 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Match the List – I (Name of Case) with List – II (Name of Court) and choose the correct option using the codes given below.

 
List – I List – II
1. Municipal Corporation Vs. Subhagwanti i. High Court of Madhya Pradesh
2. Roop Lal Vs. Union of India ii. High Court of Jammu and Kashmir
3. State Vs. Chironji Lal iii. High Court of Calcutta
4. Rural Transport Service Vs. Bezlum Bibi iv. Supreme Court
  1. 1 – iv, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iii
  2. 1 – ii, 2 – i, 3 – iv, 4 – iii
  3. 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – ii, 4 – i
  4. 1 – iv, 2 – i, 3 – iii, 4 – ii
Question 49 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

The power of the Government to refer a dispute under the Industrial Disputes Act is

  1. mandatory
  2. discretionary
  3. recommendatory
  4. either mandatory or discretionary
Question 50 Multiple Choice (Single Answer)

Failure of the conciliation proceedings under the Industrial Disputes Act leads to referral of the matter to adjudication by

  1. the conciliation officer
  2. the employer as well as the employee
  3. the employer
  4. the appropriate government