Questions
Which of the following are matched incorrectly?
i. Habeas Corpus – ‘To produce the body’
ii. Quo warranto – ‘Issued to a lower court to stop proceedings in a case’
iii. Prohibition – ‘Issued to a lower court quashing a decision or order’
iv. Mandamus – ‘Commands a person to perform a public duty’
- i, ii and iii
- ii and iii
- ii, iii and iv
- ii and iv
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The writ of Habeas Corpus can be granted to enable the detainee to argue his case in person.
Reason (R): Because R Vs. Secretary of State for Home Department ex parte Wynne (1992) decided so.
- (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the right reason for (A).
- (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
- (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Article 51 A of the Constitution of India is confined to
- all citizens of India
- all persons of India
- all non-residents of India
- all students of India
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Code of conduct has statutory force.
Reason (R): Because Article 102 of the constitution says so.
- (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the right reason for (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
- (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
- (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.
If the Government is defeated on the floor of Rajya Sabha, what is the consequence?
- Parliament is dissolved.
- Prime Minister has to submit his resignation.
- President’s rule is imposed immediately.
- Nothing happens.
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The power under 368 of the Constitution is a constituent power subject to the constitutional scheme as to distribution of legislative power according to entries in the Seventh Schedule.
Reason (R): Because Sasanka Sekhar Maity Vs. Union of India decided so.
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
- Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the right reason for (A).
- (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
- (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Which of the following statements is correct?
- Gullappalli Nageswara Rao Vs. State of AP is about bias.
- K. L. Tripathi Vs. State Bank of India is about the right of cross examination.
- General Medical Council Vs. Spaekmen is about irrelevance of principles of natural justice; if in reaching a decision, the principles make no difference.
- N. Kalindi Vs. Tata Locomotives is about the right of representation by a lawyer considered as a part of natural justice and it can be claimed as of right.
Administrative law deals with
i. the powers of constitutional authorities
ii. the powers of judicial authorities
iii. the powers of the administrative authorities
iv. the powers of the legislative authorities
- only i and ii
- only ii
- only iii
- i, ii, iii and iv
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) to answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): One of the two Acts enacted under List I Entry 66 and the other under List III Entry 25 can be repugnant to each other.
Reason (R): Because Annamalai University Vs. Secretary of Inf. and Tourism Department decided so.
- (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
- (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
- (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Which of the following is/are decided case(s) about possession?
- Cartwright Vs. Green
- R. Vs. Hudson
- Daimler Co. Vs. Continental Tyre and Rubber Co.
- 3 only
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- 1 and 2
Which of the following statements is correct?
- While certiorari can be issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities, mandamus can be issued against administrative authorities also.
- Mandamus can be issued for a declaration that an Act is ultra vires the Constitution and certiorari can also be issued for correcting that defect.
- Certiorari can be issued against a quasi-judicial authority to prevent it from exercising jurisdiction not vested in it. Mandamus cannot be issued for that purpose.
- Certiorari cannot be issued against usurping a public officer, but Mandamus can be issued for that purpose.
In which of the following cases was it observed by the Supreme court that precedent should not be petrified nor judicial dicta divorced from the socio-economic mores of the age?
- Mamleshwar Vs. Kanahaiya Lal
- Bengal Immunity Company Ltd. Vs. State of Bihar
- State of West Bengal Vs. Corporation of Calcutta
- K. C. Dora Vs. G. Annamanaidu
Who among the following divided the sources of Law into formal sources and material sources?
- Gray
- Keaton
- Allen
- Solmond
What was the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in A. K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India?
- Rule of law is embedded in Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
- Judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
- Principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings.
- Post-decisional hearing would be sufficient for the observance of principles of natural justice.
Austin described ownership as a right over determinate thing with reference to which of the following options?
- Restricted in point of disposition
- Unlimited in point of duration
- Indefinite in point of user
- Unlimited in point of space
Which of the following mitigating factors does not justify the award of death penalty?
- When the murder has been previously planned.
- Such murder involves exceptional depravity.
- When such murder was against a public servant while on duty.
- When the offence was committed by the accused under the influence of extreme mental disturbance.
According to Professor Goodhart, a ratio decidendi of a case is
- the principle of law laid down in a decision which is the decisive element
- the conclusion reached by the judge on the basis of the material facts of the case
- the reason given by the court for its decision
- any opinion of the court on a question of law
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of the codes given below, find the correct explanation:
Assertion (A): Participation in some manner in the act constituting the offence of common intention by all the persons to be prosecuted is necessary.
Reason (R): Physical presence at the time of commission of crimes is not mandatory in all cases.
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Which of the following facts does not constitute the degree of knowledge for holding a person to be criminally liable for adducing false evidence?
- A statement is known to be false.
- A statement is believed to be false.
- A statement is not believed to be true.
- An offence is committed, but not affirmed.
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of the codes given below, find the correct explanation:
Assertion (A): Nullum Crimen is an injunction to the legislature, not to implicate all the suspected persons to be prosecuted.
Reason (R): To avoid impossibility and to settle the question, the legislature must have to use administrative ruling.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Match List – I with List – II using the codes given below:
| List – I | List – II |
| i. There is no rigid formula for principles of natural justice. | a. R. S. Dass Vs. Union of India |
| ii. Choice of application of rules of natural justice | b. R. Vs. Sussex Justices |
| iii. Justice should not only be done, but manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done. | c. Union of India Vs. P. K. Roy |
| iv. Meaning of bias | d. Secy. to Govt. Transport Dept. Vs. Munuswamy |
- i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
- i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
- i – a, ii – c, iii – b, iv – d
- i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of the codes given below, find the correct explanation:
Assertion (A): The gist of conspiracy lies in forming the scheme between two or more persons to perform the overt act.
Reason (R): The alleged agreement must provide circumstantial evidence about the participation by all to establish conspiracy.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Which of the following cannot be a subject matter of theft?
- Durga idol
- Cooking gas
- Running electricity
- Forgotten umbrella
What offence, if any, has been caused by the accused ‘X’ in the following facts?
‘X’ had some verbal wrangle with his wife ‘Y’ and in course of that, he gave her a blow with great force and after an interval for two hours, ‘Y’ died. Medical evidence provided the causative factor as rupture in the spleen.
- Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
- Grievous hurt
- Homicide
- Simple hurt
The main objective of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act is
- to provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution
- to provide for ensuring standards for emission from automobiles
- to put restrictions on the establishment of certain industrial plants
- to establish an air laboratory for air quality standards
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): A company was unlawfully polluting streams and rivers by discharging trade effluents which raised pollution level beyond permissible limits.
Reason (R): The court decided that the company could not be held liable under Water Act, 1974.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
The definition of ‘environmental pollution’ under the Environment (Protection) Act is
- any pollution of air, water and soil
- the presence of any solid, liquid or gaseous substance in the environment that causes injuries to man
- the presence in the environment of any environmental pollutant
- any pollution in land, sea and air
The National Environment Tribunal Act provides for compensation on the basis of no fault liability in the cases of
I. death of any person
II. injury to any person
III. death and injury to workman
IV. damage to any property
- I and II
- II and III
- IV only
- I, II and IV
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below, answer the question:
Assertion (A): In criminal breach of trust, there is conversion of property held by a person in a fiduciary capacity.
Reason (R): A person has a right to convert property held by him in a fiduciary capacity.
- Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
- (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
- (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Consider the following statements regarding vested and contingent rights:
- A vested right creates an immediate interest and is transferable and heritable.
- A contingent right creates an immediate interest and is defeated when the required facts have not occurred.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following statements is correct?
- A quasi-judicial body may never review its own decision unless authorised by the statute.
- A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is a grave error of law in it.
- A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is a violation of natural justice.
- All tribunals may review their decisions.
Under whose specification is the recycling of plastic undertaken as per the Plastic Manufacture, Sales and Usage Rules, 1999?
- Indian Standard Institution
- Bureau of Indian Standards
- Indian Standard Organisation
- Indian Plastic Bureau
For which special purpose can a conditional permit for hunting any wild animal not be granted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act?
- Preparation of snake venom for manufacturing of life saving drugs
- Collection of specimen for zoos and museums
- Scientific research
- Research in traditional and established Universities
“International Law may be defined in broad terms as the body of general principles and specific rules which are binding upon the members of the International Community in their mutual relations”. Who has given this definition of Public International Law?
- J. G. Starke
- Charles G. Fenwick
- Whiteman
- Torsten Gihl
The Estrada Doctrine was propounded by
- the Home Minister of Mexico
- the Foreign Minister of Mexico
- the External Secretary of USA
- the Prime Minister of UK
Arrange the following cases in the chronological order on the basis of the year in which they have been decided by the Supreme Court on Public Trust doctrine under Environment law. Answer using the codes given below:
I. M. C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath
II. M. I. Builders Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Radhey Shyam Sahu
III. Hinch Lal Tiwari Vs. Kamala Devi
IV. Intellectual Forum, Thirupathi Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
- IV, III, I, II
- III, II, IV, I
- III, I, IV, II
- I, II, III, IV
“The UNO has no competence to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State”. This provision has been provided under which Article of UN Charter?
- Article 1(7)
- Article 2(7)
- Article 7(2)
- Article 98(7)
Give the chronological order of the following in which they came into existence:
a. Charter of United Nations
b. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
c. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
d. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
- a c b d
- d b a c
- a b d c
- c d b a
Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was held to be ‘intra-vires’ in the Constitution by the Supreme Court in the case of
- T. Sareetha Vs. T. V. Subbhiah
- Saroj Rani Vs. Sudarshan
- Harvinder Kaur Vs. Harmandar Singh
- Sarla Mudgil Vs. Union of India
There is a clear cut division between the spheres of legislature and judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which of the following propounds this doctrine?
- Analytical jurisprudence
- Historical jurisprudence
- Sociological jurisprudence
- Philosophical jurisprudence
A Muslim has given Triple Talaaq to his wife and now wants to marry her again. He can do so
- without any restriction
- only on request of such wife
- only if such woman marries another man, the marriage is consummated and he has (second husband) divorced her
- He cannot marry her.
Match items in List – I with items in List – II using the codes given below:
| List – I | List – II |
| a. Intergenerational Equity | i. Earth Summit, 1992, Principle 15 |
| b. Sustainable Development | ii. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 16 |
| c. Precautionary Principle | iii. Stockholm Declaration 1972, Principles 1 and 2 |
| d. Polluter Pays Principle | iv. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 3 |
- a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
- a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv
- a – ii, b – iv, c – I, d – iii
- a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
As per Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the essential conditions of a Hindu marriage are
I. Monogamy
II. Mental capacity
III. The groom has completed the age of 21 years and the bride of 18 years
IV. No prohibited degree and sapinda relationship unless saved by custom
- I, II and IV
- II, III, and IV
- I, II and III
- I, II, III and IV
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find out the correct answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Legitimate expectation does not grant an absolute right to a claimant.
Reason (R): Legitimate expectation protects the right of fair hearing before a decision which results in negating a promise or withdrawing an undertaking is taken.
- (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true and (R) is false.
- (A) is false and (R) is true.
Abuse of discretion can be inferred from which of the following circumstances?
(i) Non-application of mind
(ii) Colourable exercise of power
(iii) Non-observance of audi alteram partem
(iv) Irrelevant considerations
- Only (i)
- Only (i) and (ii)
- Only (ii) and (iii)
- Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
In giving a child in adoption by a Hindu father, the requirement of the consent of the mother can be dispensed with in which of the following cases?
I. She has been declared to be of unsound mind by the Court of Competent Jurisdiction.
II. She has finally and completely renounced the world.
III. She has ceased to be a Hindu.
IV. Her age is less than 18 years.
- II, III and IV
- I, II, III and IV
- I, II and III
- I, III and IV
Which of the following is/are correct?
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is a valid subsisting marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a court of competent jurisdiction.
- I and III are correct, but II is incorrect.
- II and III are correct, but I is incorrect.
- I and III are incorrect, but II is correct.
- I and II are incorrect, but III is correct.
“A Hindu mother can be the natural guardian of her minor child during the life of the father of the child if he is not taking due care of the child.” This was held by the Supreme Court of India in the case of
- M. M. Ganguli Vs. Jayanti Ganguli
- Jijabai Vs. Pathan Khan
- Sarla Mudgil Vs. Union of India
- Githa Hariharan Vs. Reserve Bank of India
Which of the following has not yet been statutorily recognised as a theory of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
- Fault Theory
- Will Theory
- Breakdown Theory
- Mutual Consent Theory
Which of the following statements are wrong?
i. Human rights are created by legislation.
ii. Legal duty to protect human rights is not the duty to respect them.
iii. International concern with human rights as enshrined in the Untied Nations Charter is a modern innovation.
iv. A human right violation is now conceived as violation of those personally and directly aggrieved, but not of everyone.
- i and ii
- ii and iii
- iii and iv
- i, ii, iii and iv
Match List – I with List – II in the light of Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List – I | List – II |
| a. Imprisonment of husband | i. Sec. 2(vii) |
| b. Option of puberty | ii. Sec. 2(iii) |
| c. Husband missing | iii. Sec. 2(v) |
| d. Impotency of husband | iv. Sec. 2(i) |
- a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
- a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
- a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
- a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv
Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
| List – I (Name of Case) | List – II (Popular Name) |
| a. Portugal Vs. India | 1. The Asylum Case |
| b. Burkina Faso Vs. Mali | 2. Fisheries Jurisdiction Case |
| c. Spain Vs. Canada | 3. Frontier Dispute Case |
| d. Columbia Vs. Peru | 4. Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case |
- a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
- a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1
- a – 2, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3
- a – 3, b – 1, c – 4, d – 2
Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
| List – I (Name of Case) | List – II (Year of decision) |
| a. Lether Vs. Sagor | 1. 1939 |
| b. Bank of Ethiopia Vs. National Bank of Egypt | 2. 1942 |
| c. Arantzazu Mendi Case | 3. 1937 |
| d. U.S. Vs. Pink | 4. 1921 |
- a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
- a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
- a – 2, b – 1, c – 4, d – 3
- a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2
Which of the following courts normally is/are notified by the State Governments to act as Human Rights Court(s) for speedy trial of offences violating Human Rights?
i. Munsiff Courts
ii. Lok Adalats
iii. Senior Civil Judge Court
iv. Sessions Court
- i and iv
- i, iii and iv
- ii and iv
- iv only
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The purpose of United Nations is to maintain national security and peace.
Reason (R): Because Article – I of the Charter of the United Nations says so.
- Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the right reason for (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
- (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
- (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
| List – I | List – II |
| a. Recognition clothes the recognized State with rights and duties under International law. | 1. De Facto Recognition |
| b. Recognition is merely a formal acknowledgement through which established facts are accepted. | 2. Constitutive Theory of Recognition |
| c. State recognised possesses the essential elements of statehood and fit to be subject of international law. | 3. De-Jure Recognition |
| d. Recognition is final and once granted cannot be withdrawn | 4. Declaratory Theory of Recognition |
- a – 2, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3
- a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
- a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
- a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Human Rights are regarded as those fundamental but alienable rights which are preferred for life as human beings.
Reason (R): Change is the general rule of life. Therefore, legislatures are free to change human rights according to the changing needs and circumstances.
- Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
- Both(A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
- (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): A refugee means any person who, owing to well-founded fear of being prosecuted for reason of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion, is outside the country of his nationality.
Reason (R): Because the United Nations Convention on the Refugees, 1951 in its Article 1A says so.
- Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the right reason of (A).
- (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
- (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Right to nationality, right to marry and right to find a family are the rights under
(i) women rights
(ii) social and cultural rights
(iii) civil and political rights
(iv) inherent rights
- (i), (ii) and (iv)
- (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (iii) only
The power of ‘enquiry and investigation’ was given to Human Rights Commission under which of the following sections of the protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?
i. Section 13
ii. Section 14
iii. Section 9
iv. Section 10
- i and ii
- i and iii
- ii and iii
- iii and iv
Which of the following are effective defences in the tort of nuisance?
I. Public good
II. Prescription
III. Statutory authority
IV. Reasonable care
- I and III
- II and IV
- II and III
- I and IV
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Negligence as a tort is the breach of legal duty to take care which results in damage.
Reason (R): In the tort of negligence, the law takes cognizance of carelessness only if it is supported by the legal duty to care.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
In the tort of slander, it is essential that some special damage has been resulted from the use of word by the defendant. In which of the following cases may an action of slander be maintained, without proof of special damage?
I. Words imputing criminal offence to the plaintiff.
II. Words imputing to the plaintiff that he has an infectious disease.
III. Words prejudice the plaintiff in his office, profession, etc.
IV. Words imputing unchastity to a woman.
- I and II
- I, II and III
- I, II and IV
- I, II, III and IV
Which of the following is not an exception to the strict liability principle laid down in Rylands Vs. Flecher?
- Independent contractor
- Statutory authority
- Act of God
- Consent of the plaintiff
What is the pecuniary jurisdiction of the State Commission under the Consumer Protection Act?
- Exceeds rupees fifty lakhs, but does not exceed rupees one crore
- Exceeds rupees twenty lakhs, but does not exceed rupees one crore
- Exceeds rupees ten lakhs, but does not exceed rupees one crore
- Exceeds rupees one crore
According to Section 12 of the Partnership Act, any difference arising as to ordinary matters connected with the business of partnership may be decided by
- the seniormost partner
- an arbitrator
- a majority of partners
- a judge
Which of the following are the rights of a consumer under Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
I. Right to consumer education
II. Right to seek redressal
III. Access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices
IV. Take goods and services free of cost
- I and III
- I, II and III
- I and II
- I, II, III and IV
Which of the following are essentials of a contract of sale of goods?
i. Offer
ii. Acceptance of offer
iii. Exchange of goods for money
iv. Transfer of property in goods from the seller to the buyer
- only i and ii
- only iii and iv
- only ii and iii
- i, ii, iii and iv
Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods has passed to the buyer and the buyer wrongfully neglects to pay for the goods according to the terms of the contract, the seller may sue the buyer for the price of the goods.
Reason (R): The seller is entitled to get the contractual price.
- Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
- (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
- (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.
Match the following:
| List – I | List – II |
| a. Scienti non fit injuria | i. Where there is remedy, there is a right. |
| b. Qui facit per alium facit per se | ii. He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself. |
| c. Ubi jus ibi remedium | iii. No injury is done to one who knowingly does an act. |
| d. Ubi remedium ibi jus | iv. Where there is wrong, there is remedy. |
- a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
- a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
- a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
- a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
Which of the following statements is correct?
- If the contract is inconsistent with the public documents, the person contracting will not be prejudiced by irregularities that may set the outdoor working of the company.
- If the contract is consistent with the public documents, the person contracting will not be prejudiced by irregularities that may set the indoor working of the company.
- The doctrine of indoor management seeks to protect the company against an outsider.
- The doctrine of ultra vires seeks to protect the outsider against internal irregularities of the company.
Which of the following statements are correct?
In order that a person can be called a holder in due course, he must show
i. that he is the drawer of the negotiable instrument
ii. that he has obtained it without consideration
iii. that he has obtained it before the maturity of the negotiable instrument
iv. that he has obtained the negotiable instrument in good faith
- i and ii
- ii and iii
- iii and iv
- i and iv
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List – I | List – II |
| i. Intention of parties to pass property in goods | a. Ghasiram Vs. State |
| ii. Ascertainment of intention to pass property in goods | b. Badriprasad Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh |
| iii. Passing of property in goods | c. United Breweries Ltd. Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh |
| iv. Specific goods in deliverable State | d. Usha Beltron Ltd. Vs. State of Punjab |
- i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
- i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
- i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b
- i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List – I | List – II |
| i. Directors with unlimited liability | a. Sections 202 and 203 of the Companies Act |
| ii. Prevention of management of a company by undesirable persons | b. Section 312 of the Companies Act |
| iii. A director cannot assign his office in favour of any one else. | c. Sections 322 and 323 of the Companies Act |
| iv. Appointment to a place of profit under the company | d. Section 314 of the Companies Act |
- i – a, ii – c, iii – b, iv – d
- i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
- i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
- i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List – I | List – II |
| i. Inchoate stamped instrument | a. Union Bank of India Vs. Ankur Corp. |
| ii. Liability of acceptor of a negotiable instrument | b. Section 31 of the Negotiable Instrument Act |
| iii. Liability of an endorser | c. Section 35 of the Negotiable Instrument Act |
| iv. Liability of the drawee of a cheque | d. Section 20 of the Negotiable Instrument Act |
- i – a, ii – d, iii – c, iv – b
- i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b
- i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c
- i – c, ii – b, iii – a, iv – d