Multiple choice

If probability density function of a random variable X is f(x) = x² for – 1^_$\le$x^_$\le$1, and = 0 for any other value of x Then, the percentage probability ^{$p \left(}

\dfrac{1}{3} \le x \le \dfrac{1}{3} \right) $is

Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself

If probability density function of a random variable X is f(x) = x2 for – 1$\le$ x$\le$1, and = 0 for any other value of x Then, the percentage probability $p \left( \dfrac{1}{3} \le x \le \dfrac{1}{3} \right) $is