Multiple choice

Literary historians today have rejected conventional analysis of the development of English Renaissance drama. They no longer accept the idea that the sudden achievement of Elizabethan playwrights was a historical anomaly, a sort of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary English subject matter. Instead, most students of the theatre now view Elizabethan drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays.

Which of the following is not consistent with the passage above?

  1. England had a dramatic tradition before the Renaissance period.

  2. Elizabethan drama, once thought to be a sudden blossoming forth of creativity, is now seen as part of a historical continuum.

  3. Historians' views of the antecedents of English Renaissance drama have changed considerably.

  4. Although English Renaissance drama treats English subject matter, its source of form and method is classical Greek drama.
Reveal answer Fill a bubble to check yourself
D Correct answer
Explanation

We have to look for an option that directly contradicts this. We find this in (4): It is not a “magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary English subject matter”

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